Ok, I know I am probably steaming right now and over reacting but I still want other peopls opinions on this...
I was playing $.50/$1.00 no limit full table...
No raise preflop, 4 callers, I have pocket 5's... Flops comes 5, 3, k... I bet $3, next to act, min raises to 6, 1 guy calls the $6 and the next folds... I then reraise to $20, the raiser reraisers to $40, last guy folds, and I then go All-In for $160.
He CALLS with 6, 2 off suit and of course hits the straight on the turn...
2 hands later... I get AK suited, raise before me to $10, I reraise to $40, the guy from previous hand calls, the next guy goes all in for $110, I got all in for $150, and the guy CALLS again...
He flips over 2,3 of diamonds and of course flops the flush...
I know people are reckless but there is just no justification whatsoever for these 2 calls, no implied or pot odds, not making a move AND then getting called... These are both CALLS...
What do you guys think??
I was playing $.50/$1.00 no limit full table...
No raise preflop, 4 callers, I have pocket 5's... Flops comes 5, 3, k... I bet $3, next to act, min raises to 6, 1 guy calls the $6 and the next folds... I then reraise to $20, the raiser reraisers to $40, last guy folds, and I then go All-In for $160.
He CALLS with 6, 2 off suit and of course hits the straight on the turn...
2 hands later... I get AK suited, raise before me to $10, I reraise to $40, the guy from previous hand calls, the next guy goes all in for $110, I got all in for $150, and the guy CALLS again...
He flips over 2,3 of diamonds and of course flops the flush...
I know people are reckless but there is just no justification whatsoever for these 2 calls, no implied or pot odds, not making a move AND then getting called... These are both CALLS...
What do you guys think??