Oct.14 Math Question from Mathydotcom

[mathdotcom]

Not very hard. No math hustlers allowed.

Let X be a random variable that is equal to 1 with probability p and equal to 0 with probability (1-p). You can think of X as a coin but without equally likely outcomes. How would you calculate the expected duration (number of coin flips) until you observe for the first time X = 1?

[hhsilver]

E(N) = SIGMA ( i=1 to inf ) ipq^(i-1) where q=1-p

[mathdotcom]

(pq)^i-1 or p(q)^i-1? And is the i in front of pq included?

[hhsilver]

only q is raised to i-1 power

i x p x ( q ^ i-1)

[Bread]

i dunno

[pavyracer]

1+1=3

[pico]

1+1=3

if you're mexican, then 1+1 = 16 + gov subsidy

[SCRAGGS]

[RealSlimShady]

Mathy, why are you such a damn nerd?

[flyingillini]

Mathy for next SBR Mod!

[mathdotcom]

E(N) = SIGMA ( i=1 to inf ) ipq^(i-1) where q=1-p

Well done sir
BUT I SAID NO FUKKIN HUSTLERS!!!

[wtf]

FYI

hh cheated off my paper

[mathdotcom]

wtf I knew it

Would you like another Q?

[hhsilver]

Well done sir
BUT I SAID NO FUKKIN HUSTLERS!!!

no, you specifically said no MATH hustlers.

I figured by doing this I was hustling for points.

[hhsilver]

thanks mathy,

actually I just wanted to do something for those who are suffering from a lack of Ganch.