I was looking at the Esjberg soccer game starting in 35 minutes. I see the spread at -1/2 goal for +115. I then looked at the Moneyline for Esjberg to win at +110. Both are for 90 minutes + injury time.
Maybe I have not had my morning coffee yet and my mind cant figure it out so I ask. Arent both the ML and the spread the same bet. They have to win by a goal not a fraction, so how come slightly better odds at +115 for the -1/2 goal compared to the win at +110?
Like I said its a silly noob question
Maybe I have not had my morning coffee yet and my mind cant figure it out so I ask. Arent both the ML and the spread the same bet. They have to win by a goal not a fraction, so how come slightly better odds at +115 for the -1/2 goal compared to the win at +110?
Like I said its a silly noob question