need informations about Betfair rule for tennis, bets type "sets betting"

**filipinho** · 08-16-12, 05:29 AM

Originally posted by benji2501

For example, i'd like to place bet Djokovic wins 2 sets to 0 vs Davydenko. But i'm wondering: supposing a player retires before end of th, e match, whereas Davydenko has already won a set, what will my bet become? Void or lost ?

Lost.Read their rules.

**121212** · 08-16-12, 05:32 AM

Void. Set betting markets are only settled upon completion of the match and retirements void all bets on these markets. Only markets that have been unconditionally determined are settled in the event of a retirement e.g. First Set winner.

filipinho is wrong.

**benji2501** · 08-16-12, 05:42 AM

yes i think you're right 121212 coz i've just read this rule for market sets betting: If a player retires before the completion of the match all bets will be void.
But i have another question please 121212 : you write "Only markets that have been unconditionally determined are settled in the event of a retirement". Supposing i bet on total games in a tennis match, i bet there will be "over 20.5 games in match", and a player retires when score is for example 7-6 4-3 . The retirement occurs when total is 20, but it is obvious that total should necessarily have been "over 20.5" if match had normally ended. So what happens in such a situation on Betfair ? Is the bet "won" (coz considered as unconditionnaly determined) or void ? Thanks again for your help.

**121212** · 08-16-12, 06:08 AM

I believe that it would be settled as a loser, as the match has ended with less than 20.5 games.

**benji2501** · 08-16-12, 07:27 AM

Originally posted by 121212

I believe that it would be settled as a loser, as the match has ended with less than 20.5 games.

Euh no, impossible, the bet would either be settled won or void, but not lost. Imagine you bet "over..." and there's retirement at 1-0 for example, can you imagine one second Betfair would settle it lost coz there was les than... :-) No one would place any more bets on betfair on total games...:-)

**muffins** · 08-16-12, 08:54 AM

Originally posted by benji2501

yes i think you're right 121212 coz i've just read this rule for market sets betting: If a player retires before the completion of the match all bets will be void.
But i have another question please 121212 : you write "Only markets that have been unconditionally determined are settled in the event of a retirement". Supposing i bet on total games in a tennis match, i bet there will be "over 20.5 games in match", and a player retires when score is for example 7-6 4-3 .

Bet is void as not unconditionally determined. You are right that obviously if match continued it would go over, but that is a condition. Theoretically a player could be defaulted (hits an umpire for e.g.) and lose the match still without another game being complete.

**wrongturn** · 08-16-12, 09:02 AM

With that rule, even the bet on Djokovic +1.5 set will be voided, although it is already a winner.

**noyb** · 08-16-12, 09:31 AM

jesus such a simple question and yet people give the wrong answer. why answer it of you obv have no clue yourself

bets are void.

**muffins** · 08-16-12, 09:38 AM

Originally posted by wrongturn

With that rule, even the bet on Djokovic +1.5 set will be voided, although it is already a winner.

Betfair doesn't have that market and if they did the rule would not necessarily be the same, different markets have different rules.

**benji2501** · 08-16-12, 09:51 AM

Originally posted by muffins

Betfair doesn't have that market and if they did the rule would not necessarily be the same, different markets have different rules.

I think Betfair has that market. Bet on Djoko +1.5 set (tht is to say Djoko wins at least one set) is the same as "lay" Davydenko 2sets to 0 (Indeed if Davydenko doesn't win 2-0 it means Djoko +1.5 set is won), correct?

**121212** · 08-16-12, 09:54 AM

Originally posted by benji2501

Euh no, impossible, the bet would either be settled won or void, but not lost. Imagine you bet "over..." and there's retirement at 1-0 for example, can you imagine one second Betfair would settle it lost coz there was les than... :-) No one would place any more bets on betfair on total games...:-)

Sorry, I misread what you asked. muffins is correct; it's void as it's a market that is deemed to be undetermined.

**wrongturn** · 08-16-12, 11:40 AM

Originally posted by muffins

Betfair doesn't have that market and if they did the rule would not necessarily be the same, different markets have different rules.

I don't know about Betfair as I can not use it. But for A rated books, unless there is a clear rule talking about "unconditionally determined" result to override the general rule, the bet on +1.5 will be voided in this case.

**King_Suckerman** · 08-16-12, 02:18 PM

Originally posted by wrongturn

I don't know about Betfair as I can not use it. But for A rated books, unless there is a clear rule talking about "unconditionally determined" result to override the general rule, the bet on +1.5 will be voided in this case.

wrongturn almost implies all A rated books have the same rules. Maybe they do but my advice would to check the rules at the book you are playing at.

**muffins** · 08-16-12, 02:37 PM

Originally posted by benji2501

I think Betfair has that market. Bet on Djoko +1.5 set (tht is to say Djoko wins at least one set) is the same as "lay" Davydenko 2sets to 0 (Indeed if Davydenko doesn't win 2-0 it means Djoko +1.5 set is won), correct?

That is a selection in the sets betting market, not a +1.5 market Set Handicap market. The difference is important because your lay of Davydenko 2-0 would be void and not paid if match does not complete, whereas if they offered a +1.5/-1.5 market then it would probably be paid as unconditionally determined once a set is over (in 3 set match) even if match did not complete.

**wrongturn** · 08-16-12, 02:53 PM

Originally posted by King_Suckerman

wrongturn almost implies all A rated books have the same rules. Maybe they do but my advice would to check the rules at the book you are playing at.

I said A rated books have their rules clearly stated on how to grade incomplete games. They can be very different. The difference in rules on grading tennis incomplete game is the most obvious example.

Less rated book often grade incomplete games based on how they feel. Without "unconditionally determined" language in their rules, some grade +1.5 as winner, some void them, thus generate controversy as we have seen many times here.

**LT Profits** · 08-16-12, 09:05 PM

Originally posted by benji2501

yes i think you're right 121212 coz i've just read this rule for market sets betting: If a player retires before the completion of the match all bets will be void.
But i have another question please 121212 : you write "Only markets that have been unconditionally determined are settled in the event of a retirement". Supposing i bet on total games in a tennis match, i bet there will be "over 20.5 games in match", and a player retires when score is for example 7-6 4-3 . The retirement occurs when total is 20, but it is obvious that total should necessarily have been "over 20.5" if match had normally ended. So what happens in such a situation on Betfair ? Is the bet "won" (coz considered as unconditionnaly determined) or void ? Thanks again for your help.

Obviously VOID. The real question is what would happen if you have Over 20.5 and a player retires after 21 games. Is that a Win or a Void? If it were, say, a baseball bet, it would be a void even if had already gone Over. But based on thee "unconditional" rule, they may grade that one a win.

**muffins** · 08-17-12, 01:59 PM

Originally posted by LT Profits

Obviously VOID. The real question is what would happen if you have Over 20.5 and a player retires after 21 games. Is that a Win or a Void? If it were, say, a baseball bet, it would be a void even if had already gone Over. But based on thee "unconditional" rule, they may grade that one a win.

Not may, would. It would be graded as a win as it is unconditionally determined (has already occurred).