I know this has been asked before so please don't chop off my balls....

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  • riffraff24
    SBR Hall of Famer
    • 04-20-11
    • 7234

    #1
    I know this has been asked before so please don't chop off my balls....
    I couldn't find the thread that explained this. But what is the difference in taking Germany -1/2 (-137) first half vs. Germany ML (-137) first half?

    Thanks in advance
  • RubberKettle
    SBR Hall of Famer
    • 12-28-09
    • 6421

    #2
    If Germany wins 1st half you obviously win both

    If Germany draws or loses 1st half you lose both.

    No difference. One bet is on the 3-way-line and one is Asian Handicap that's the only 'difference.'
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    • riffraff24
      SBR Hall of Famer
      • 04-20-11
      • 7234

      #3
      Okay. So strange to me but i guess it makes sense. Thanks buddy
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