Can someone explain to me why Netherlands are not participating in the Confed cup? Italy are in it, whats the deal? World Cup Finalists is ranked higher than Euro Finalists, 2009 was the last and they reached the final in WC 2010....
infamousbacardi
SBR MVP
03-16-08
4556
#2
Because they didn't qualify for it...
It is contested by the holders of each of the six FIFA confederation championships (UEFA, CONMEBOL, CONCACAF, CAF, AFC, OFC), along w/ the FIFA WOrld Cup holder and the host nation, to bring the number of teams up to eight.
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infamousbacardi
SBR MVP
03-16-08
4556
#3
Italy got in because they were runner-up in Euro 2012, because Spain won Euro and World Cup.
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onemoregoal
SBR Hall of Famer
02-04-13
8149
#4
Runner up at world cup is more important but i guess technically Spain qualified as world cup holders, their Euro win irrelevant in terms of qualification.....so that opened the door up for Italy.
Valid point, though.
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Tiki-taka
SBR Rookie
06-22-13
32
#5
Yes I get the points, but your missing my point here, Italy qualified through runner up of the Euro 2012 BUT only because Spain won both competitions in the 4 years for this years confed cup, which means Netherlands reached the final in 2010 which falls in the 4 year period, to my knowledge Fifa world cup is regarded more higher than the Euros also more games need to be won to reach the final, I am not disputing Italy but surely what is the reason Netherlands didn't enter the Confed cup this year.
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onemoregoal
SBR Hall of Famer
02-04-13
8149
#6
The reason Netherlands didnt qualify is because Spain qualified as world cup holders.
The reason Spain qualified as world cup holders and not as Euro cup holders, is because we both agree the world cup is more important.
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swordsandtequila
SBR Hall of Famer
02-23-12
9758
#7
What he's asking is why did Italy (2012 Euro runner-up) get the nod over the Netherlands (2010 World Cup runner-up). Both finished 2nd. Which title qualified Spain doesn't seem relevant. Spain doesn't abdicate their Euro title to Italy for purposes of qualification. Or do they? Or were the Dutch invited and declined? Wouldn't be the first time.
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onemoregoal
SBR Hall of Famer
02-04-13
8149
#8
,,,
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onemoregoal
SBR Hall of Famer
02-04-13
8149
#9
Originally posted by swordsandtequila
What he's asking is why did Italy (2012 Euro runner-up) get the nod over the Netherlands (2010 World Cup runner-up). Both finished 2nd. Which title qualified Spain doesn't seem relevant. Spain doesn't abdicate their Euro title to Italy for purposes of qualification. Or do they? Or were the Dutch invited and declined? Wouldn't be the first time.
Sort of .... Makes more sense to give up the Euro cup, than the WC cup for qualification purposes....
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swordsandtequila
SBR Hall of Famer
02-23-12
9758
#10
Its nothing to do with Italy and Netherlands and what they did. Its whether Spain qualify as World cup holders, or Euro cup holders.
I know that. So Spain qualified as World Cup champs. So the runner-up in the "vacated" tournament (Euro) automatically gets the nod? If the World Cup is higher in the pecking order (as it should be), same should be true for 2nd place. Both teams lost to Spain, the Netherlands loss being "better". Only seems fair. But when has that ever mattered .
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bosigga
SBR MVP
09-26-10
1312
#11
Maybe it's because the World Cup took place first so technically Spain clinched/qualified for their "Confed Cup" place 3 years ago as WC winner..thus leaving the "UEFA" slot to be filled by runner up of euro 12
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bosigga
SBR MVP
09-26-10
1312
#12
Originally posted by swordsandtequila
I know that. So Spain qualified as World Cup champs. So the runner-up in the "vacated" tournament (Euro) automatically gets the nod? If the World Cup is higher in the pecking order (as it should be), same should be true for 2nd place. Both teams lost to Spain, the Netherlands loss being "better". Only seems fair. But when has that ever mattered .
Yes but WC runner up will not always yield a UEFA team, whereas the Euro runner up obviously will. If it was Ivory Coast as WC runner up should they get the nod over Italy? In this case it's a European team as WC runner up but I'm guessing they wanted more of a "standard" formula?
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onemoregoal
SBR Hall of Famer
02-04-13
8149
#13
Its the confederations cup so you need a participant from each competition. So Spain as world cup holders and Holland as world cup runners up - would mean no representative for the Euro competition.
Im not an expert on the confederation cup - but that makes more sense to me.
The only other way it could have worked is to have Spain as the Euro cup holders and give Holland the world cup spot. But i guess on paper it makes more sense to give Spain the wc spot.
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swordsandtequila
SBR Hall of Famer
02-23-12
9758
#14
Originally posted by bosigga
Yes but WC runner up will not always yield a UEFA team, whereas the Euro runner up obviously will. If it was Ivory Coast as WC runner up should they get the nod over Italy? In this case it's a European team as WC runner up but I'm guessing they wanted more of a "standard" formula?
No, sure there's a checklist of qualifications, go down the list until you have a winner. I don't have an issue with it either way, but I understand the OP's question. Hell, it might even be in the rules. In case of multiple titles by one team, 2nd place Euro first to go. Easy peasy.
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swordsandtequila
SBR Hall of Famer
02-23-12
9758
#15
Originally posted by onemoregoal
Its the confederations cup so you need a participant from each competition. So Spain as world cup holders and Holland as world cup runners up - would mean no representative for the Euro competition.
Im not an expert on the confederation cup - but that makes more sense to me.
The only other way it could have worked is to have Spain as the Euro cup holders and give Holland the world cup spot. But i guess on paper it makes more sense to give Spain the wc spot.
Best answer yet. Think we have a winner.
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bosigga
SBR MVP
09-26-10
1312
#16
Exactly
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Tiki-taka
SBR Rookie
06-22-13
32
#17
Originally posted by onemoregoal
Its the confederations cup so you need a participant from each competition. So Spain as world cup holders and Holland as world cup runners up - would mean no representative for the Euro competition.
Im not an expert on the confederation cup - but that makes more sense to me.
The only other way it could have worked is to have Spain as the Euro cup holders and give Holland the world cup spot. But i guess on paper it makes more sense to give Spain the wc spot.
Happy with that notion, just would be great to get an official ruling on the matter, the other angle to your theory is why not Spain go in as Euro winners and Holland WC runners? Same thing I guess which is why this thread exists, I don't get how the ruling works but it is important because Netherlands aren't in the Confed cup now I guess its just up to Fifa which isn't really good enough.
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onemoregoal
SBR Hall of Famer
02-04-13
8149
#18
"why not Spain go in as Euro winners and Holland WC runners?"
Either because the World cup is regarded as a higher tier tournament and/or because it happened first.
I will convince you, but for now i am going to sleep.