Hi,
Im not able to think clear here.
You have 4 teams left in a competition. They played the first leg and big favorite team A lost against team B (forgot about team c an d). So in the 2nd leg, team A is again favorite to win the match.
In the outright market consisting of all the teams, team A is set to have a bigger chance to win the whole tournament than team b.
Then on the matchups (1st leg and 2nd leg combined), team B is the favorite to win and progress...Is this correct or am I missing something I mean if team A has a bigger chance according to the odds to win the whole tournament, shouldnt team A also be the favorite in the matchups outright?
Feel free to ask if you dont understand. Basically im talking about a 2nd leg match, where its also offered OUTRIGHT for whole tournament and OUTRIGHT for the 2 legs combined.
Im not able to think clear here.
You have 4 teams left in a competition. They played the first leg and big favorite team A lost against team B (forgot about team c an d). So in the 2nd leg, team A is again favorite to win the match.
In the outright market consisting of all the teams, team A is set to have a bigger chance to win the whole tournament than team b.
Then on the matchups (1st leg and 2nd leg combined), team B is the favorite to win and progress...Is this correct or am I missing something I mean if team A has a bigger chance according to the odds to win the whole tournament, shouldnt team A also be the favorite in the matchups outright?
Feel free to ask if you dont understand. Basically im talking about a 2nd leg match, where its also offered OUTRIGHT for whole tournament and OUTRIGHT for the 2 legs combined.
