Hey everyone,
I'm a long-time lurker and I think this is my first post.
First off, buy the letter of the rule of the book I placed this bet with, the bet was rightfully canceled, no complaint, I assumed I won and did not check the rule until after I noticed it was canceled. With that said...
I have UCF over 9.5 wins for the season. They went 11-0. The rule of the book is that all scheduled games had to be played. UCF/UNC was canceled due to the hurricane.
I am struggling to see who the rule protects or the reasoning for it. If the game had not been canceled and UCF lost and goes 11-1, the bet would've paid as a winner. I did some research and this seems to be a fairly common rule, so it's not just that I used a bad book (they are highly rated, no need to trash the book since they did follow the posted rules).
I am racking my brain trying to figure out the reasoning for this, and the only rule that makes sense is the result would've been in doubt had all games been played. I would also understand if the 11 wins were against teams not originally on the schedule, but they were not.
Sorry if this is something that is well-known, I'm new to the world of futures betting and I'm just trying to understand the reasoning for this. Thanks!
I'm a long-time lurker and I think this is my first post.
First off, buy the letter of the rule of the book I placed this bet with, the bet was rightfully canceled, no complaint, I assumed I won and did not check the rule until after I noticed it was canceled. With that said...
I have UCF over 9.5 wins for the season. They went 11-0. The rule of the book is that all scheduled games had to be played. UCF/UNC was canceled due to the hurricane.
I am struggling to see who the rule protects or the reasoning for it. If the game had not been canceled and UCF lost and goes 11-1, the bet would've paid as a winner. I did some research and this seems to be a fairly common rule, so it's not just that I used a bad book (they are highly rated, no need to trash the book since they did follow the posted rules).
I am racking my brain trying to figure out the reasoning for this, and the only rule that makes sense is the result would've been in doubt had all games been played. I would also understand if the 11 wins were against teams not originally on the schedule, but they were not.
Sorry if this is something that is well-known, I'm new to the world of futures betting and I'm just trying to understand the reasoning for this. Thanks!
