Stupid question from a noob

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  • socalaaron
    Restricted User
    • 07-22-09
    • 200

    #1
    Stupid question from a noob
    What does this prop mean? Does it mean total runs from either team or that Texas will win the inning by at least 1 run?

    Sat 10/16 9905 NYY runs in 2nd inning +½ -450 -130 o½ -105
    4:05PM 9906 TEX runs in 2nd inning -½ +330 +100 u½ -125
  • Plu$Money
    Restricted User
    • 10-28-08
    • 395

    #2
    Yankees + 1/2 run in the 2nd is -450 therefore if both teams score the same amount of runs or if neither team scores a run you win because you are getting a half run.. Same thing goes with Texas -1/2 runs, you would need them to outscore Yankees by at least 1 run to win..

    Now as far as the over/under 1/2 runs, that is combined runs for both teams in that inning.. So under a half you need 0 runs or over a half you need 1 obviously
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    • socalaaron
      Restricted User
      • 07-22-09
      • 200

      #3
      Got it.. Thanks for your help
      Comment
      • Plu$Money
        Restricted User
        • 10-28-08
        • 395

        #4
        No problem GL
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        • Regul8er
          SBR Posting Legend
          • 11-06-07
          • 10666

          #5
          Goodluck.
          Comment
          • Regul8er
            SBR Posting Legend
            • 11-06-07
            • 10666

            #6
            hope ya hit it dude
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