Can someone translate this to me?

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  • 1984mountaineer
    SBR Rookie
    • 04-27-11
    • 22

    #1
    Can someone translate this to me?
    nternet / -1 Ticket #: 810167
    May 26 01:05 PM
    May 26 12:35 PM
    May 26 01:05 PM

    MLB
    MLB
    MLB
    PARLAY (3 TEAMS)
    [902] PHI -160
    ( ACTION )
    [909] TOTAL o8½-105 (KAN vrs BAL)
    ( J FRANCIS -L / J GUTHRIE -R )
    [911] TOTAL o8½EV (BOS vrs DET)
    ( A ACEVES -R / M SCHERZER -R )

    14.00 / 74.83

    30.42
    WIN
    WIN
    WIN
    N/A SHORT
    05/26/2011 08:32
  • 1984mountaineer
    SBR Rookie
    • 04-27-11
    • 22

    #2
    I bet 14 to win 74.83..... had all three parts of the parlay correct, but was only awarded 14/30.42
    Comment
    • John Dough
      SBR MVP
      • 09-21-05
      • 1785

      #3
      The BOS/DET game only went 8 innings, totals are no action, so you get credit for a two-team parlay win.
      Comment
      • Rod_M
        SBR MVP
        • 10-31-09
        • 1282

        #4
        Originally posted by John Dough
        The BOS/DET game only went 8 innings, totals are no action, so you get credit for a two-team parlay win.
        What he said exactly
        Comment
        • 1984mountaineer
          SBR Rookie
          • 04-27-11
          • 22

          #5
          Originally posted by John Dough
          The BOS/DET game only went 8 innings, totals are no action, so you get credit for a two-team parlay win.


          I'm an idiot. I still got the over even though it was shortened! Damn.....Just for forum points, I didn't see that the game got shortened. Confused myself a bit. Thanks, boss.

          EDIT: Also it saying I "WIN" for all three games led to part of the confusion.
          Comment
          • chachi
            SBR MVP
            • 02-16-07
            • 4571

            #6
            why are totals no action in situations like this if the line was effectively 'already unconditionally determined' ?
            Comment
            • mtneer1212
              SBR MVP
              • 06-22-08
              • 4993

              #7
              Originally posted by chachi
              why are totals no action in situations like this if the line was effectively 'already unconditionally determined' ?
              Because if you allowed action, unders would have an advantage, and if you allowed action and it was already an over, then under players are disadvataged.
              Comment
              • chachi
                SBR MVP
                • 02-16-07
                • 4571

                #8
                Guess am used to BetFair rules / Eurobooks ... they would void if shortened only IF overs was not already a determined result, after all, if the score is 12-0 in the 2nd inning and rain kicks in after the 5th, unders backers can hardly claim to be disadvantaged, it's really the overs backers who are getting shafted
                Comment
                • LegitBet
                  Restricted User
                  • 05-25-10
                  • 538

                  #9
                  See that's the way it should be, where if an over comes in quickly, it's a winner regardless.
                  This is just fair, and could be taken into account whenpricing the bet.
                  Similar to overtime counting in halftime bets.
                  Comment
                  • chachi
                    SBR MVP
                    • 02-16-07
                    • 4571

                    #10
                    The thing I like about Betfair's methods is that they generally settle over/under markets that I bet/trade as they hit

                    Sometimes laying u1.5 or backing the over and a few early ones fly in, I'm already paid out by the 15th minute or so
                    Comment
                    • RickySteve
                      Restricted User
                      • 01-31-06
                      • 3415

                      #11
                      It's a stupid rule.
                      Comment
                      • Dark Horse
                        SBR Posting Legend
                        • 12-14-05
                        • 13764

                        #12
                        Yes it is.

                        When the over has won after 2 innings, the under has lost. You don't need the whole 9 innings to figure that out. Not rocket science. Enter: THEORY.... Reasoning behind this strange rule is that unders can't win unless the whole game is played. In other words, if play is suspended in the 7th inning with the run total still one run under the posted total, the over doesn't get paid, but neither does the under. 'Therefore', even if the game has already gone over, with both bets (over/under) decided, to grade the bet as a win for the over would give over bettors a tiny mathematical edge. In theory, the over/under would no longer be a perfect 50/50 proposition. An example of taking math too far; into a theoretical realm outside of everyday reality.
                        Comment
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