Given the moneyline and total, why are NL home teams less likely to score first?

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  • mathdotcom
    SBR Posting Legend
    • 03-24-08
    • 11689

    #1
    Given the moneyline and total, why are NL home teams less likely to score first?

    Could just be a 2009 phenomenon, but to put it simply, if you have two games that have identical moneylines and totals, but one is an AL game and one an NL game, the NL home team will be less likely to score the first run.
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