Hey everybody, I am new to the forum and didn't know what my first post should be, so I guess this is as good as any.
As judging from what I have seen so far this is a very advanced community with regards to sports gambling knowledge, I am sure everyone knows what a chase or "Martingale" system is. Typically, one bets a specific unit amount on a team that fits a specific criterion, and if that bet loses, one bets on the next team that fits the criterion, doubling the unit, then quadrupling if that loses, etc. etc.
My question is, instead of multiplying by two between every losing bet, to account for the typical bookie vigorish where lines are set at -110 instead of even, shouldn't the "chase factor" be 2.1. Otherwise, if one were to use a chase factor of 2 on -110 lines, the returns would gradually be diminished as the chase continues.
Sorry if my wording is cloudy. I am very interested in the probability and game theory behind sports gambling and thought of this conjecture recently.
As judging from what I have seen so far this is a very advanced community with regards to sports gambling knowledge, I am sure everyone knows what a chase or "Martingale" system is. Typically, one bets a specific unit amount on a team that fits a specific criterion, and if that bet loses, one bets on the next team that fits the criterion, doubling the unit, then quadrupling if that loses, etc. etc.
My question is, instead of multiplying by two between every losing bet, to account for the typical bookie vigorish where lines are set at -110 instead of even, shouldn't the "chase factor" be 2.1. Otherwise, if one were to use a chase factor of 2 on -110 lines, the returns would gradually be diminished as the chase continues.
Sorry if my wording is cloudy. I am very interested in the probability and game theory behind sports gambling and thought of this conjecture recently.