Help - Understanding Asian Handicap Parlays

[jimmyc]

hi, still a noob here and need some assistance on understanding how AH parlays are calculated. They seem to differ from book to book (particularly the Euro books and the Asian ones).

Example:

3 selection parlay with a stake of USD 100

suppose I took on Team A, B and C with a payout of $1.9, $1.75 and $2.10 respectively, what would be the payouts be for the following scenarios?

Scenario 1: All 3 teams clears AH, I would then win $698.25 right? (multiply all odds by the stake amount)


Scenario 2: A and B clears the handicap while C only wins a half bet (eg. +0.25 and result is 0-0), my understanding is that for a half bet, the odds for team C would drop to $1.55. So my payout would then be $515.38

Scenario 3: A and B clears the handicap while C loses a half bet (eg. -0.25 and result is 0-0), for a half bet loss, the odds for team C would be omitted but the remaining winning selections would be multiplied by a factor of 0.5. So my payout would then be 1.9 x 1.75 x 0.5 x $100 = $166.75

Scenario 2 and 3 was explained by an Asian book. But I can't understand why such a formula is used. Is there any logical explanation?

I know Bet Fair only awards a payout on whole winners. So in a situation whereby there is a half win or a half loss, the whole parlay is deemed to be a loss. Is this correct and if so, shouldnt all books be consistent?

appreciate any help I can get.

Cheers,

[RogueJuror]

With Scenario 3:

With option C its split to .50 because you would be placing two parlays.

$100 / 2 = $50 each parlay

one parlay at...

A. -0.5 B. +0.5 C. 0 @ $50

the other parlay at

A. -0.5 B. +0.5 C. -0.5 @ $50

Clearing A. and B., with a score of 0-0 on option C , the first parlay have 2 winners and a push/draw for a reduced payout. The second parlay have 2 winners and a loss which loses the parlay.

[RogueJuror]

With Scenario 2:

With option C its split to .50 because you would be placing two parlays.

$100 / 2 = $50 each parlay

one parlay at...

A. -0.5 B. +0.5 C. 0 @ $50

the other parlay at

A. -0.5 B. +0.5 C. +0.5 @ $50

Clearing A. and B., with a score of 0-0 on option C , the first parlay have 2 winners and a push/draw for a reduced payout. The second parlay have 3 winners for a full payout.

[jimmyc]

With Scenario 3:

With option C its split to .50 because you would be placing two parlays.

$100 / 2 = $50 each parlay

one parlay at...

A. -0.5 B. +0.5 C. 0 @ $50

the other parlay at

A. -0.5 B. +0.5 C. -0.5 @ $50

Clearing A. and B., with a score of 0-0 on option C , the first parlay have 2 winners and a push/draw for a reduced payout. The second parlay have 2 winners and a loss which loses the parlay.

thanks for replying RoqueJuror.

Ok, if I understand you correctly, because there is a half loss half push for one of the teams, the parlay odds would then have to be reduced by a factor of 0.5 to determine the overall payout odds?

I understand the logic behind it but wonder how anyone can come up with this "formula". He must have been a whizz... then again, my math have always been crap!

As i mentioned earlier, the books treat the parlay payouts different. Is there a right or wrong method? Why do the asian books pro-rate while books like Bet Fair, Ladbrokes etc.. just consider that parlay a loss bet?

[RogueJuror]

so the payouts for scenario 2:

parlay 1: $50 x1.90 x 1.75 x cacelled = $166
parlay 2: $50 x1.90 x 1.75 x 2.10 = $349

total payout from outcome = $515




so the payouts for scenario 3:

parlay1: $50 x1.90 x 1.75 x cancelled = $166
parlay2: $50 parlay lost

total payout from outcome = $166

[RogueJuror]

As i mentioned earlier, the books treat the parlay payouts different. Is there a right or wrong method? Why do the asian books pro-rate while books like Bet Fair, Ladbrokes etc.. just consider that parlay a loss bet?

Asian books do it like it should be done, its the fair way. If somebody wasn't doing it like that I wouldn't play parlays there anymore, you are getting rob.

[jimmyc]

Sorry RogueJuror,

just reread my last post and it didnt quite seem like i grasped your explanation.

I thought about it again and think I got it this time:

Half loss, half push:

because an outright push selection is treated as 1 (or omitted completely for simplicity), when a selection becomes half loss and half win, the "1" becomes a 0.5 instead.

Is this correct?

Half win, half push

Similarly, because only half of that selection is a winner, the odds become 1 (for the push) + [odds - 1] x 0.5 (for the half win). Correct?

[RogueJuror]

Half loss, half push:

because an outright push selection is treated as 1 (or omitted completely for simplicity), when a selection becomes half loss and half win, the "1" becomes a 0.5 instead.

Is this correct?

If you meant half push in the bold part, then yes you could interpret it that way.

[RogueJuror]

Half win, half push

Similarly, because only half of that selection is a winner, the odds become 1 (for the push) + [odds - 1] x 0.5 (for the half win). Correct?

Yes for half of it, remember you didn't loss the other portion, it just got reduce.
The other 0.5 portion would have full payouts which is scenario 2.

[jimmyc]

Yes. I meant half push.

Great. Guess i've finally nailed it. Thanks again buddy.

Looks like i'll take up your advice on playing my parlays at the asian books from now on. Just that a lot of them always get locked out of asia really quickly.

A friend recommended Lasseters. they have an asian site. Lines look solid but there are limited live in play games which is a down point. Have you had any experience with them?