The Truth About Parlays>>>

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  • LT Profits
    SBR Aristocracy
    • 10-27-06
    • 90963

    #1
    The Truth About Parlays>>>
    In response to a recent poster here, here is an old article that I wrote a few years ago that shows that there is nothing wrong with a good hadicapper playing 2-team parlays:


    We have always felt that one way for a 55 percent handicapper to build up a bankroll rather quickly is by playing 3-team 2-way round robins. This is simply defined as three 2-team parlays boxing all combinations among three plays, i.e. AB, AC, and BC.

    Now many people, including so-called professional bettors, have scoffed at the prospect of playing just ONE parlay, as they consider them 'sucker bets'. Well, we have always maintained that if a handicapper can consistently win 55 percent of his plays in the 11/10 sports, namely football and basketball, then round robins are not only considered an acceptable betting mechanism, but we would actually RECOMMEND them!

    We feel that people that look at parlays as strictly recreational bets are missing the point. These players assume that every play has a 50 percent probability of winning. Therefore, they contend, the true chances of hitting a 2-team parlay are 25 percent (.50 x .50), which is not enough to overcome the standard 13/5 payoff, which has a breakeven point of 27.78 percent. Our thinking is that if a handicapper has a long-term 55 percent (or better) success rate, then it would be proper to assume a 55 percent expectation on each play instead of 50 percent.

    Using this criteria, the expected odds of hitting a 2-team parlay would now be 30.25 percent (.55 x .55), which would show a long-term profit at 13/5 odds. To illustrate, let us say a 55 percent handicapper played 100 $10 parlays. The total investment of these parlays would be $1,000. With a 30.25 percent win rate, this handicapper should hit around 30 of these parlays. Since each winning $10 parlay would have a return of $36, the total return on the 30 winning parlays would be $1,080, translating into an $80 profit and an 8 percent ROI! If the handicapper has a proven long term win rate of 56 percent, 57 percent or higher, his ROI would be exponentially higher.

    Now, let's say that a 55 percent handicapper likes 3 games on a particular day. If he had $300 to invest, should he play each game for $100 straight, or would it be more profitable to play a $100 round robin, investing the same $300? To illustrate this, let us take a look at a series of 300 games, comparing the expectation of playing 300 straight bets with that of playing 300 parlays.

    If he played 300 straight bets with a 55 percent win rate, he would win 165 of those bets. With a profit of $91 for each $100 bet, his profit for the series would be (165 x 91) - (135 x 100) = $1,515. Now if he instead played 300 2-team parlays with a 30.25 percent expectation as discussed earlier, he would be expected to hit about 90 of those parlays. His profit for the series would be (90 x 260) - (210 x 100) = $2,400. As you can see, he would have made a significantly better profit playing parlays ($2,400 profit/$30,000 invested = 8 percent ROI) than he would have playing straight bets ($1,515/$30,000 = 5.05 percent ROI).

    The moral of all this is that if you are a 55 percent or better handicapper, then round robins can be very lucrative. Now it is understandable that even the best of handicappers may be a bit squeamish about relying entirely on round robins to come out ahead of the game. Our advice then is to start out by playing 70 percent of your units on straight bets and 30 percent on round robins. Therefore, the $100 bettor would start out by playing $70 straight on each game and a $30 3-team 2-way round robin, investing the same $300 that he would have invested if he played all the games straight. As the bankroll grows larger, only then consider raising the round robin percentage to 35 or even 40 percent of a normal unit.
  • ms61853
    Restricted User
    • 04-10-07
    • 731

    #2
    Thanks. This is the way it has seemed to me.

    But I guess it comes down to 2 things:

    1) money management

    and most importantly:

    2) You really do have to be a sharp player -- not just think you are. And you'll end up fiding out a lot sooner playing parlays.
    Comment
    • BrentCrude
      SBR MVP
      • 11-16-05
      • 4665

      #3
      My winning formula on small parlays

      I play allot of these $5 4 team parlays and do very,very well.

      Take two hometown moneyline favorites where they are about +150 or +160 on -1.5.Then I go with the over and love it when the over is just 7 to 9 runs.It stands to reason that if you cover the -1.5 side you cover the over pretty often. They pay anywhere from about $110 to $130

      These are very fun recreational bets and the nice thing is,the cocktail waitresses in Vegas don't know if you have 5 or 6 $5 tickets or 5 or 6 $100 tickets in your hand and the Heinekens cost you nickels and dimes tips where even if you lose all your bets you break even drinking freebie beer.
      Comment
      • The HG
        SBR MVP
        • 11-01-06
        • 3566

        #4
        Brent, where do they let you parlay a RL and a total??
        Comment
        • LT Profits
          SBR Aristocracy
          • 10-27-06
          • 90963

          #5
          Ganchrow HG,

          I used to at WSEX. Don't know if they still allow it though.
          Comment
          • RageWizard
            SBR MVP
            • 09-01-06
            • 3008

            #6
            I have done some parlay systems in the last couple of years and in the system above with the round robin approach, if you bet $50 dollars each and win two out of three, you come home with $30 and a 66.6% winning percentage.

            I found that it is better to pick one team as the lock and parlay the other two off of that play. etc.. Ab Ac

            Sure team A could lose but if you consitently hit 55% of your plays it will make money for you.
            Comment
            • rjp
              SBR Rookie
              • 07-17-06
              • 39

              #7
              If you're betting a Kelly fraction then parlays can fit in nicely.

              Let's say you find two 55% bets against -110 odds (a 0.1033% expected bankroll growth), which is worth roughly 2.7502% at half Kelly.

              Now these figure to both happen 30.25% of the time, and you're going to get paid out at +260, so for this two team parlay your expected bankroll growth is now 0.1130%, which is slightly better than each individually.

              Assuming half Kelly, what you do is bet 1.7115% on the parlay, and then spread out the rest of the remaining worth on each individually. Let's say you've got a 10k bankroll: individually you would want to wager $275.02 on each, but instead you should wager $171.15 on the parlay, and then you should wager $103.87 on each straight bet ($275.02 - $171.15 = $103.87).

              I'd like to hear what Ganchrow thinks of this, but based on everything I've read from him and others about Kelly this would be the appropriate way to get the best of what's available.
              Comment
              • Ganchrow
                SBR Hall of Famer
                • 08-28-05
                • 5011

                #8
                Originally posted by rjp
                If you're betting a Kelly fraction then parlays can fit in nicely.

                Let's say you find two 55% bets against -110 odds (a 0.1033% expected bankroll growth), which is worth roughly 2.7502% at half Kelly.

                Now these figure to both happen 30.25% of the time, and you're going to get paid out at +260, so for this two team parlay your expected bankroll growth is now 0.1130%, which is slightly better than each individually.

                Assuming half Kelly, what you do is bet 1.7115% on the parlay, and then spread out the rest of the remaining worth on each individually. Let's say you've got a 10k bankroll: individually you would want to wager $275.02 on each, but instead you should wager $171.15 on the parlay, and then you should wager $103.87 on each straight bet ($275.02 - $171.15 = $103.87).

                I'd like to hear what Ganchrow thinks of this, but based on everything I've read from him and others about Kelly this would be the appropriate way to get the best of what's available.
                Well your numbers are slightly off, but you've got the right idea.

                Given a $10,000 bankroll at half Kelly, two independent events priced at -110, each occurring with 55% likelihood, the Kelly optimal allocation is $267.94 on each single bet and $7.59 on the (true odds) parlay, yielding expected bankroll growth of 0.2070%.

                Note however, that these numbers only hold if the parlay pays out at true parlay odds. If the parlay instead were only to pay out at +260, then the Kelly optimal allocation would be $275.34 per single with nothing on the parlay. This would yield expected bankroll growth of 0.2068%.

                Check out Simultaneous-bet Kelly staking -- the simplest case where I explain the math in the unconstrained case (post #9), and its implementation in my Multivariable Kelly Calculator.
                Comment
                • rjp
                  SBR Rookie
                  • 07-17-06
                  • 39

                  #9
                  Yeah, I didn't bother to take the simultaneous bet into account, so the numbers weren't exactly accurate.

                  So in your estimation, even though the expected bankroll growth is higher for the parlay, you don't make the parlay? Or are you saying that due to the simultaneous nature of the bets, the optimal solution has a higher expected bankroll growth for the single bets instead of the parlay?

                  I assume it's option #2, as the whole point is to maximize bankroll growth. Oh, and I'd say you'd risk the appropriate amount on the parlay first, and the subtract that from the other bets because the parlay has the highest expected bankroll growth (if this statement is true, of course).
                  Comment
                  • Ganchrow
                    SBR Hall of Famer
                    • 08-28-05
                    • 5011

                    #10
                    Originally posted by rjp
                    So in your estimation, even though the expected bankroll growth is higher for the parlay, you don't make the parlay? Or are you saying that due to the simultaneous nature of the bets, the optimal solution has a higher expected bankroll growth for the single bets instead of the parlay?

                    I assume it's option #2, as the whole point is to maximize bankroll growth. Oh, and I'd say you'd risk the appropriate amount on the parlay first, and the subtract that from the other bets because the parlay has the highest expected bankroll growth (if this statement is true, of course).
                    The optimal solution, which includes two single bets and one parlay, implies expected growth identical to that which would be achieved were the two events sequential. These are the results that's attained in general. As long as a player is able to place bets at true parlay odds with no minimum bet size, then event simultaneity has no impact on expected growth.

                    In this particular case, the suboptimal solution including only the two singles (2.754% of bankroll for each) produces expected growth of 0.2068%, while the suboptimal solution including only the parlay (1.9098% of bankroll) produces expected growth of 0.1456%.

                    Although I suspect I may not have properly understood your question.
                    Comment
                    • rjp
                      SBR Rookie
                      • 07-17-06
                      • 39

                      #11
                      I think I had way too many questions in that post just trying to get at the same thing:

                      If the optimal solution is to play a parlay and two straight bets then you would want to play the parlay "first", if that makes sense.

                      I just think I need to better understand the optimal solutions for simultaneous wagers.
                      Comment
                      • Ganchrow
                        SBR Hall of Famer
                        • 08-28-05
                        • 5011

                        #12
                        Originally posted by rjp
                        If the optimal solution is to play a parlay and two straight bets then you would want to play the parlay "first", if that makes sense.
                        I don't think I quite get what you mean when you write of playing the parlay "first". All 3 bets are in theory made simultaneously, with the two singles contributing considerably more to expected growth than the parlay.
                        Comment
                        • Dark Horse
                          SBR Posting Legend
                          • 12-14-05
                          • 13764

                          #13
                          You need very good records to determine if a play is parlay quality or not. Sample size can be a problem.

                          The book I try to read before each football season is 'Win More, Lose Less.' Pretty much the Bible on this topic.

                          Comment
                          • rjp
                            SBR Rookie
                            • 07-17-06
                            • 39

                            #14
                            Originally posted by Ganchrow
                            I don't think I quite get what you mean when you write of playing the parlay "first". All 3 bets are in theory made simultaneously, with the two singles contributing considerably more to expected growth than the parlay.
                            That's because I wasn't using the simultaneous theory. You might have mentioned this, but did you take into account the fact that the straight bets are tied into the parlay?

                            When I say "first" I was saying that you bet the parlay with the optimal fraction because it has the highest expected growth (not using the simultaneous theory of course). Then, because you've got money in the parlay directly tied to the straight bets, you bet the difference between what the optimal straight bet fraction and that with which you've already got tied into the parlay.
                            Comment
                            • rjp
                              SBR Rookie
                              • 07-17-06
                              • 39

                              #15
                              Originally posted by Dark Horse
                              You need very good records to determine if a play is parlay quality or not. Sample size can be a problem.

                              The book I try to read before each football season is 'Win More, Lose Less.' Pretty much the Bible on this topic.

                              http://www.gamblersbook.com/weblink....il/677413.html
                              Haven't picked this one up, and with so much stuff out there it's hard to filter through the garbage. Might pick this one up on your suggestion. Thanks.
                              Comment
                              • Ganchrow
                                SBR Hall of Famer
                                • 08-28-05
                                • 5011

                                #16
                                Originally posted by rjp
                                That's because I wasn't using the simultaneous theory. You might have mentioned this, but did you take into account the fact that the straight bets are tied into the parlay?
                                Yeah, those are the underpinnings. You select the sizes of the two straight bets and parlay so as duplicate the exact results that would be attained were the games sequential.
                                Comment
                                • Ganchrow
                                  SBR Hall of Famer
                                  • 08-28-05
                                  • 5011

                                  #17
                                  Look at it this way:

                                  We'll assume a $10K bankroll and a half-Kelly bettor. Given two two independent sequential events priced at -110 (for the sake of simplicity we're assuming no line movements), each occurring with 55% likelihood, the half-Kelly stake is $275.53 to win $250.48.

                                  If that initial bet wins, the bankroll would be $10,250.48, implying a second bet of $282.43 (that's $10,250.48 * 2.7553%) to win $256.76.

                                  If the initial bet lost the bankroll would be $9,724.47, implying a second bet of $267.94 (that's $9,724.47 * 2.7553%) to win $243.58.

                                  So if both bets win, bankroll would be $10,000-$275.53+$256.76 = $10,507.24.

                                  If both bets lose bankroll would be $10,000-$275.53-$267.94 = $9,456.53.

                                  And if one bet wins and the other bet loses bankroll would be $10,000+$250.48-$282.43 = $10,000-$275.53+$243.58 = $9,968.05.

                                  Contrast these results with what we'd see were the two events simultaneous.

                                  Bet $267.94 to win $243.58 on each single, and $7.59 to win $20.07 on the double.

                                  If both events win, total bankroll would be $10,000+$243.58+$243.58+$20.07 = $10,507.23.

                                  If both lose, total bankroll would be $10,000-$267.94-$267.94-$7.59 = $9456.53,

                                  If one event wins and the other loses, total bankroll would be $10,000+$243.58-$267.94-$7.59 = $9,968.05

                                  So in other words, the simultaneous bet outcomes are identical to the sequential bet outcomes in every realization.
                                  Comment
                                  • LT Profits
                                    SBR Aristocracy
                                    • 10-27-06
                                    • 90963

                                    #18
                                    bump for Bateman
                                    Comment
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