Why is this -eV

jellobiafra · 11-02-09, 06:49 PM

What if PHI wins by 1?

roasthawg · 11-02-09, 06:49 PM

Because the Phillies will win by 1 x% of the time?

CashItIn · 11-02-09, 06:49 PM

Yanks!

FreeFall · 11-02-09, 06:52 PM

Originally posted by jellobiafra

What if PHI wins by 1?

What is the % of that happening is what I'm wondering. Then we can find out. Or what is the chance games end in 1 differential run for the fav?

Originally posted by roasthawg

Because the Phillies will win by 1 x% of the time?

and that is?

smitch124 · 11-02-09, 06:59 PM

you are betting, roughly, $200 to win $49.

Or -408 to the prop will the Phils win by 1 run? No

smitch124 · 11-02-09, 07:02 PM

This being the world series and all there may be a prop like that out there, would be interesting to see what it was....

poker_dummy101 · 11-02-09, 07:02 PM

its more likely they win by 1 seeing that their home

poker_dummy101 · 11-02-09, 07:03 PM

you can get phillies 3:1 at Bodog to win by exactly 1 run. didnt scope other sites out