Question about 1st 5 inning betting in baseball

[UntilTheNDofTimE]

I'm no newbie to betting baseball but Ive always noticed this and wondered why would anyone bet that?

for instance

if you want to take the angels 1st 5 innings here are your lines

-119 on the ML
and
-0.5(+110) on the Spread,

obviously a moneyline is not a push so your team would have to be winning, what would be purpose of betting this at -119 when u can get it at +110, is this just hear so that hopefully a few idiots will miss the boat. what am i missing ?

[Bread]

Many sites offer 5 inning straight up moneylines also.

[VegasDave]

If the game is tied at the end of the 5th, ML pushes, -0.5 loses. Big difference!

Good to see you by the way, haven't seen you around in a little while!

[UntilTheNDofTimE]

thanks for answering the question!!!!, this bet is like saying lakers ML -119 and lakers -0.5 for game +110, get what im saying

[Bread]

Yea that is a whole different ballgame. Don't like that at all.

[UntilTheNDofTimE]

If the game is tied at the end of the 5th, ML pushes, -0.5 loses. Big difference!

Good to see you by the way, haven't seen you around in a little while!

oh ok i get it cause obviously after 5 innings a game can tie but at the end of a game thats not allowed thanks

[UntilTheNDofTimE]

dave yea i was tired of all the critics, i just stay to myself unless i have something to say

[VegasDave]

oh ok i get it cause obviously after 5 innings a game can tie but at the end of a game thats not allowed thanks

You got it. Especially in pitcher duel type of situations, 0-0 or 1-1 could be fairly likely.