one of my books was allowing me to parlay the ravens -10 and over 17 (i think 17 was the total) in last nights game for the 2nd half..based on the 3to1 rule of correlated parlays, this would be a MAJOR correlation? any thoughts? if so how would you approach this if you were me?
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Have you ever considered compiling your own database so that you can do your own homework?Comment -
17 was not the total, not even closeOriginally posted by mm9182Comment -
I was able to parlay Saints and Over for the 2nd half and thought it was odd as well.Comment -
like above poster said total was not 17
what book let you parlay it?
you can send a PMComment -
Ravens second half total was 21.5, so still good correlation. Saints were -10 and 24.Comment -
You people are f ing morons.Comment -
it doesnt matter exactly what it was in this case bc it hit by plentyOriginally posted by Pancho sanzaComment -
yea i do have my own database, but i have not been doing this for too long so i do have questions..sorry i was not born with all this information like you apparently were..i was under the impression this website was made for people to talk, ask questions, and bounce ideas off each other about gambling..Originally posted by sharpcatComment -
No one that you would want advice from is ever going to tell you anything remotely useful in a public venue. The better you eat, the more I starve.Originally posted by mm9182Comment -
good pointOriginally posted by RickySteveComment -
Um. Really?Originally posted by mm9182Comment -
Hey LT..for 35%+ correlation, is that +Ev longterm following blindly? And of course where available?Comment -
i think it need to be about 60-65% for it to be +evOriginally posted by jolmscheidComment
