Help Me Understand This.....

[adrian_tman]

In the

Ari@Mil game 2day...the lines were as follows


Ari -101 ML -220 RL
Mil -109 ML +180 RL

now 52% took Ari with the ML
but only 4% took Ari with RL.....

now if ppl are taking ARI to win S.U why wouldn't people take ARI with the RL.... they can even lose by a run????

to me this doesn't make sence.....

help explain this

[ryanXL977]

bc you have to lay 220 to win 100

[adrian_tman]

so the public would rather bet for value then spread...when the team you are all wagering to win could potentially even lose by 1 and you would still win???

[ryanXL977]

yes but what are the odds they lose by 1 and is it worth it laying twice as much
i personally almost never bet +1.5
maybe once a year

[adrian_tman]

so if you like a team you might as well always take the ML for the good value.... i guess i could see what ur saying b.c if the team you take loses by 1 is a fat chance and you would lose double in what u wagered compared to if you just went with the ML....

thanks ryan

[ryanXL977]

exactly my friend. i take rl favorites all the time
but never lay money to buy a run