1. 06-22-14 03:09 AM #1
    FlipsideRM
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    Why are odds different for Moneylines and spread?!

    For instance...

    Belgium -.5 is -106 but the moneyline is -110 at my book.

    Why are they not the same? If I take the moneyline they have to win the game or I lose, if I take the -.5 that means they have to win the game or I lose as well.

    Can someone please explain why they arent the same price?
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  2. 06-22-14 09:52 AM #2
    FlipsideRM
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    So no one else understands this either? Hmm ok
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  3. 06-22-14 09:58 AM #3
    Cappinpicks
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    just weird lines from 5dicks... they want you to take worse line or something
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  4. 06-22-14 09:59 AM #4
    kainomac
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    I've noticed this too, rather weird if i may say.
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  5. 06-22-14 09:59 AM #5
    FlipsideRM
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    Quote Originally Posted by Cappinpicks View Post
    just weird lines from 5dicks... they want you to take worse line or something
    Id tend to agree with this statement. but it was the same way at every other book I checked also, including my book Youwager
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  6. 06-22-14 10:07 AM #6
    Cappinpicks
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    Quote Originally Posted by FlipsideRM View Post
    Id tend to agree with this statement. but it was the same way at every other book I checked also, including my book Youwager
    ah i guess others try to screw too... just the manager is a douchebag worthless shitstain at 5dicks
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  7. 06-22-14 10:22 AM #7
    bystrow
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    It's due to a different allocation formula (actually I didn't know that word and got it from dict.cc, hope it is the right one ) from asian handicap (-.5, +.5) and 1x2.
    For example they pay out 97% in the asian market and 93% in 1x2 and that is why there is a difference.
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