Going to use an arbitrary example here.....Also, lets assume that there is no minimum and no maximum bet at my sportsbook.
Bankroll: $100k
CIN (+133) v CHC (-153)
But, lets say that I calculated CIN to only be valued at (+122, an 8% difference) and winning approximately 45% of the time, thus there is a bit of value to be had on betting CIN. If we use Kelly Betting, this obviously doesn't take into the very small edge we have and rather just the percent chance we will win; therefore I don't feel it would give us a proper and accurate percentage of our bankroll to bet. (I could be delusional in this and maybe it's not necessary to consider the 8% difference)
How could/would you calculate how much to bet using both the percent chance that you've calculated to win as well as considering the 8% difference?
Thanks all for the help!