If -500, +400 is the same as -125, +100, who go over 200 anytime?

**John Dough** · 03-30-12, 03:22 PM

Here's a thought... you are lacking in basic math skills.

Yes, you are confused.

**metsy** · 03-30-12, 03:31 PM

Thanks for the mature explanation. I guess some of us aren't as smart as you, so you put people down. Great life you must have.

Anyway, to others:

800/400 is the same as 200/100, mathematically isn't it? So what's the difference between -800, +700 and -400, +350 mathematically? Seems the same to me.

Originally posted by John Dough

Here's a thought... you are lacking in basic math skills.

Yes, you are confused.

**5mike5** · 03-30-12, 03:38 PM

bet 10 dollars at +700 u win $70.00

bet 10 dollars at +175 win $17.50

**metsy** · 03-30-12, 03:49 PM

I understand that part 5mike5, what I am saying is the percentage difference between the 2 numbers stays the same if you compare -800/+700 and -400/+350. So why don't the books simply do that? Or the reverse, post really high numbers that are the same.

**BernardMadoff** · 03-30-12, 03:56 PM

Originally posted by metsy

Maybe I am confused, but why have ML's like -800 +700, if the same thing can be done mathematically with say -200 +175. I see alot of higher ML's that can be reduced. Thoughts?

Not the same bro, I see where youre coming from and youre looking at it wrong. Youre looking at it from a mere fraction sense, a ratio, but in gambling its about money and what it takes to win a specified amount based on the odds.

**BernardMadoff** · 03-30-12, 03:57 PM

Originally posted by metsy

I understand that part 5mike5, what I am saying is the percentage difference between the 2 numbers stays the same if you compare -800/+700 and -400/+350. So why don't the books simply do that? Or the reverse, post really high numbers that are the same.

Thats because they are trying to stay in business and earn while their in business.

**Teamprofit101** · 03-30-12, 04:22 PM

metsy,

the books want to make money plain an simple... if they believe a team has an advantage they will charge more. The bigger the advantage the higher the price.

I get what your saying but it's all about the money

**mlfan** · 03-30-12, 04:48 PM

you see a +800 and -700, they're not in ratio form, why would you form a ratio of them? A no vig line of +800 means a 1/9 chance of the event occurring. A +200 means a 1/3 chance of the event occurring. Are they the same?

**indio** · 03-30-12, 04:49 PM

Whats the difference between -500/+400 and -125/+100?

Well, -500/+400 is very close to the odds on the Kentucky vs. Louisville game tomorrow. And what would be the difference if they put that game out at -125/+100? I don't know, perhaps $500 million will get bet on Kentucky -125, $200 million will get bet on Louisville +8.5, and $17 will get bet on Louisville +100?

I really didn't think a thread with this inane of a question could possibly be real, and if it is, I question if you can comprehend two + syllable words. But, I'm only a few points away from getting a Pinnacle hat that looks kind of cool, so I'll play along.

**PackAttack98** · 03-30-12, 05:40 PM

dude... what 5mike5 said.

**ehp6737** · 03-30-12, 08:07 PM

As another poster stated, you're looking at it totally wrong. You're trying to reduce and simplify a formula that can't be reduced in a fractional or comparative sense. Each ML has a value and to try and simplify it by reducing it would devalue it.

Let me explain it like you're a 3rd grader...........

There's a car dealer who buys/sells both Honda & Jaguar. They buy Hondas for 20K and sell them for 22K. They buy Jaguars for 60K and sell them for 66K. Based on your logic, since the profit margins on both cars are the same (10%) then the cars have the same value. Unfortunately, in reality 66K is worth more than 22K. Just like +800 is worth more than +200.

Hope this helps

**rm18** · 03-31-12, 12:54 AM

-1000 and +800 are closer % wise than -500/+400 so their would be less vig and the book would have a higher chance or losing long term so they would usually do +650 or +700/-1000

**princecharles** · 03-31-12, 12:24 PM

Scotty--Beam me up, and I mean now MF!!!!!!!

**goblue12** · 03-31-12, 02:16 PM

An introduction to expectations and theoretical hold

**v1y** · 03-31-12, 03:24 PM

nevermind, op's an idiot.

**Teamprofit101** · 03-31-12, 04:56 PM

Originally posted by v1y

nevermind, op's an idiot.

The guy is having trouble understanding something and he asked a question....that doesn't make him an idiot.

not everyone knows or understands everything..OP is trying to learn, just like everybody else.

**prop** · 04-01-12, 06:05 PM

I'm going skip information here and just do it dumbed down simple: Let's say the say the favorite has 89% chance of winning. If you go to this odds converter and put in 89% under implied probability it's -809. If you put in 11% it is +809. Implied probability is just a fancy word for how often a team needs to win the break even.

So let's say we want to add a 3% percent to these lines.
89% of 3% = 2.67%,
11% of 3%= 0.33%.

2.67+89%=91.67% and 11%+0.33%=11.33% go back the odds converter and see this 91.67% is -1100 and 11.33 is +782.61

___

Compare the team's chances are 50% and 50%. We add 3% so 1.5% to each and we get 51.5% for each. The odds converter shows this is -106 / -106.

____

this is start do a search on things like "how to remove vig" "how to add vig" it will start making more sense.

One perspective:

Just FYI if you had a betting of -1500 / +900
the fair odds would no vig are -938 / +938

another perspective

lines 79% has an implied probability of -376 and 2% more and 81% = -426
Further point 92% is -1149 and 94% is -1567

See how big the cents are moving. 50% +100 to 52% -108
Quite a difference, much lesser of a change.

**pedro803** · 04-04-12, 09:40 AM

because in your original example each instance is actually two different ratios but to save space they show it that way so actually:

-500/+400 is really -500/+100 and -100/+400
and
-125/+100 is really -125/100 and -100/+100

so actually they are not the same