Ball Possession percentage Brazil-Chile 50-50?

[ajuanc5]

I have some doubts concerning a match that was played on June 28th, 2010 between Brazil and Chile. I had bet that Brazil would have had a higher ball possession percentage.
According to Fifa, Brazil had a ball possession of 51% and Chile 49%.
However, the bookmakers in Italy have not paid those who had bet on Brazil, because according to their data (which they said it was based on Fifa`s statistics), the game ended with a 50-50 ball possession.
A lot of people had bet on Brazil`s ball possession so it was convenient for the bookies to put 50-50.

I would like to know what the bookies in the UK or elsewhere had put for the game.

[Hareeba!]

surely the official FIFA figures determine the outcome?

http://www.fifa.com/worldcup/matches/round=249717/match=300061500/index.html

which bookie did you bet with?

[ajuanc5]

SNAI but apparently all the bookies in Italy had put X for ball possesion for the game. I wrote to Fifa for an explonation but no reply.

[Ruifgalmeida]

the bokie is rip you off

[Hareeba!]

SNAI but apparently all the bookies in Italy had put X for ball possesion for the game. I wrote to Fifa for an explonation but no reply.

Can't see FIFA being interested

Check your bookie's rule and if they've got it wrong challenge them and refer it to their regulator if necessary

[stooges]

Yes check your bookies rule.Not all books use fifa´s officiel matchreport.Fex bwin who are counting themselves , and In 90% of the cases bwin are counting more correct than fifa.