As I was looking at the Pinny lines today, I quickly calculated the vig on several random games. I found that the vig ranged anywhere from 2.23% to 4.34% depending on the moneyline.
While I understand that there will be vig regardless, is their a "fair" amount to pay. Since Pinny is the foundation of all that is "fair", could you make the assumption that the vig that they charge is a fair market price?
What kinds of things drive the oddsmakers in terms of vig? Do they look to have a higher vig based on the volume of action they project on the assumption that they could be more profitable?
While I understand that there will be vig regardless, is their a "fair" amount to pay. Since Pinny is the foundation of all that is "fair", could you make the assumption that the vig that they charge is a fair market price?
What kinds of things drive the oddsmakers in terms of vig? Do they look to have a higher vig based on the volume of action they project on the assumption that they could be more profitable?