Mathematical riddle in dealing Blackjack.

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  • Carloschihuahua
    SBR Hustler
    • 04-06-11
    • 52

    #1
    Mathematical riddle in dealing Blackjack.
    I was opposed by a dealer colleague tonight with the following question, and I hope that we can bring clarity to this since I just can't figure it out.

    A blackjack dealer is dealing a seven boxed (standard vegas) table, he deals one face-up card for each player and one face-down card to himself. He repeats the action and now have two face-down cards in front of him.
    Now the dealer flips the wrong card (The one that is supposed to stay face-down) over the other. He might have altered the house edge. Since he didn't know the values of any of his cards, how can he have changed the house edge?
  • Zubi
    SBR Sharp
    • 12-26-09
    • 357

    #2
    I don't see how he did, cards are going to go like they are going to go, don't really see a difference in which card he flips other than it was a mistake.
    Comment
    • Kaabee
      SBR MVP
      • 01-21-06
      • 2482

      #3
      this is no riddle. house edge doesn't change.
      Comment
      • mrlegend28
        SBR Sharp
        • 04-07-11
        • 252

        #4
        the only way it changes the edge is what card it is i guess. if he flips a Ace instead of say the 3 that was the other card, could stress you out a little more.. i guess. thats my take lol
        Comment
        • Carloschihuahua
          SBR Hustler
          • 04-06-11
          • 52

          #5
          Originally posted by mrlegend28
          the only way it changes the edge is what card it is i guess. if he flips a Ace instead of say the 3 that was the other card, could stress you out a little more.. i guess. thats my take lol
          I got the answer today, and it turns out that you're on the right way.
          Suppose that the cards are a six and ten, the dealer has sixteen irregardless of what cards will be turned.

          But if the six is supposed to be turned, and the ten is turned instead the house edge has increased for the house. The dealer has revelead a hand with a high chance NOT to bust, and the players will base their decisions upon this. They will (If they know anything about blackjack) try to get seventeen before they stop, which means a lot of the hands will risk to go bust to an actual dealers hand of sixteen.

          And of course, if the other case would appear, the house edge will turn in the favor of the players.
          Comment
          • RichardGeorge
            SBR Wise Guy
            • 04-18-10
            • 640

            #6
            Never even thought about that... I guess it makes sense.... If the 10 is showing they have to draw to at least a 17... whereas 6 they over 11.... better chance of people busting vs. a 10..
            Comment
            • Jimmy Proffett
              SBR MVP
              • 10-20-09
              • 2729

              #7
              In a single sample size described above, the dealer would have the advantage. Let's say the dealer alternates between flipping the right card and wrong card for 100 hands. I don't think there'd be any advantage for either the dealer or the players.
              Comment
              • chipper
                SBR MVP
                • 01-07-10
                • 1994

                #8
                Interesting... I never thought about it but I guess it would affect the house percentage given the two cards were six and a paint. What if they were a six and a five though, would that change the house percentage since the players would assume the dealer was in a busting situation yet likely would not bust?
                Comment
                • Kaabee
                  SBR MVP
                  • 01-21-06
                  • 2482

                  #9
                  didn't know you meant one hand only. one hand yes, long run no.
                  Comment
                  • Carloschihuahua
                    SBR Hustler
                    • 04-06-11
                    • 52

                    #10
                    Originally posted by Jimmy Proffett
                    In a single sample size described above, the dealer would have the advantage. Let's say the dealer alternates between flipping the right card and wrong card for 100 hands. I don't think there'd be any advantage for either the dealer or the players.
                    Of course there would be no difference if which card was turned was completely random, and as you say, as long as it is exposed to the law of big numbers, there is no difference.

                    But maybe you could take this one step further, if a dealer actually somehow would KNOW what his two cards are, he could turn the one that is either favorable to the house or the player, depending on who's side he's on.
                    Comment
                    • playr101
                      SBR MVP
                      • 01-16-10
                      • 2029

                      #11
                      I thought this was a trick question.

                      "he deals one face-up card for each player and one face-down card to himself. He repeats the action and now have two face-down cards in front of him."

                      So he deals all cards face-up and his face down.. then he repeats..... leaving all other cards face up.. and his both face down.. There is the house edge..



                      -playr101
                      Comment
                      • Carloschihuahua
                        SBR Hustler
                        • 04-06-11
                        • 52

                        #12
                        Originally posted by playr101
                        I thought this was a trick question.

                        "he deals one face-up card for each player and one face-down card to himself. He repeats the action and now have two face-down cards in front of him."

                        So he deals all cards face-up and his face down.. then he repeats..... leaving all other cards face up.. and his both face down.. There is the house edge..



                        -playr101
                        Lol.

                        No, the reason I wrote it like that is that it is standard procedure to deal both cards facedown before you show any of their faces. In shoe-dealt blackjack in Vegas at least. And I thought that most misunderstandings would be avoided by doing this, but apperently not.
                        Comment
                        • WhiteEagle
                          Restricted User
                          • 04-12-10
                          • 452

                          #13
                          how it works, how it works...interested
                          Comment
                          • ddesmara
                            SBR High Roller
                            • 04-25-11
                            • 108

                            #14
                            very informative
                            Comment
                            • kiln
                              Restricted User
                              • 08-29-10
                              • 830

                              #15
                              Originally posted by Carloschihuahua
                              ...irregardless...
                              This isn't a word. I'm letting you know so you don't repeat the mistake, not to be didactic.
                              Comment
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