Please excuse misspelled title (can't seem to edit it).
Won't mention the book right now, but argument with telephone clerk tonight. I wanted to fill leg of an open parlay with over 2nd half of a college hoops game, during half time break.
Clerk would not take it because there was an earlier settled leg of over 1st ten minutes win of same game.
My point was that's already settled and has no bearing on this new wager, he said the opposite.
Am i wrong to think that the correlation only matters if both events have not yet begun? And/or I should have been allowed to add this wager?
thanks
Won't mention the book right now, but argument with telephone clerk tonight. I wanted to fill leg of an open parlay with over 2nd half of a college hoops game, during half time break.
Clerk would not take it because there was an earlier settled leg of over 1st ten minutes win of same game.
My point was that's already settled and has no bearing on this new wager, he said the opposite.
Am i wrong to think that the correlation only matters if both events have not yet begun? And/or I should have been allowed to add this wager?
thanks