I have a method for the NBA that predicts the no-vig moneyline. My question is, how much different should it be for it to be considered an edge and not just noise? For example, many of my no-vig lines are within 10-15 cents to the books no-vig moneyline.
My no-vig line/Book no-vig line
Dallas 111/119
OKC -111/-119
Also, is it correct to say that if I have an edge on the moneyline, then I have an edge on the spread as well?
My no-vig line/Book no-vig line
Dallas 111/119
OKC -111/-119
Also, is it correct to say that if I have an edge on the moneyline, then I have an edge on the spread as well?