How To Combine Positive ROI Angles To Create Statistically Significant Results

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  • VideoReview
    SBR High Roller
    • 12-14-07
    • 107

    #1
    How To Combine Positive ROI Angles To Create Statistically Significant Results
    Here is a real life example. For the purpose of this post, I consider 5% to be the minimum level of significance that I would want (95% confidence).

    The following represents 3171 independent games and the outcome of a single sport for a single bet type. The first column represents 4 different variables (0000 to 1113), each with its own digit (i.e. the 1st digit with a value of either 0 or 1 represents one variable, the 2nd digit is a different variable and same with the third. A value of 0 is assigned if the variable is one way and 1 if it is the other. For example, a 0 in one digit may represent a team that is home and a 1 may represent a team that is away. The 4th digit is unique in that the variable has been divided up into quartiles (or as near to a quartile as possible) using the same decision process to decide which way to round the group and does not look at the results when deciding which way to round. There is a total of 2x2x2x4=32 combinations of these 4 variables. The second column is the number of events for that combination. The third column is the ROI assuming betting an amount to win the same 1 unit regardless of odds. The fourth column is the total amount won for each variable combination assuming betting an amount to win the same 1 unit. The fifth column is the total amount bet for each variable combination assuming betting an amount to win the same 1 unit.

    Vars # ROI Win Bet
    0000 275 +2.92% 340.51 330.84
    0001 260 +5.85% 356.16 327.04
    0002 271 -6.00% 327.26 348.14
    0003 286 -8.19% 349.86 381.05

    1000 346 -7.30% 609.57 657.57
    1001 359 +4.04% 761.47 731.87
    1002 321 -6.57% 636.65 681.44
    1003 347 -4.14% 787.85 821.88

    0010 110 -7.31% 87.78 94.70
    0011 122 -0.21% 108.73 108.95
    0012 127 -17.27% 95.15 115.01
    0013 118 -22.09% 85.49 109.73

    1010 57 +13.19% 38.73 34.21
    1011 58 -22.94% 27.73 35.99
    1012 54 -6.63% 27.58 29.18
    1013 60 -16.84% 8.28 12.99

    0100 118 +16.01% 162.64 140.20
    0101 127 +10.38% 170.64 154.60
    0102 122 -2.82% 146.33 150.58
    0103 110 +2.42% 143.67 140.27

    1100 60 +7.57% 113.09 105.13
    1101 54 +2.54% 97.60 95.18
    1102 58 +11.50% 113.42 101.72
    1103 57 -9.06% 94.89 104.34

    0110 286 +5.60% 247.28 234.16
    0111 271 +4.19% 231.35 231.64
    0112 260 -13.09% 197.46 227.20
    0113 275 -7.57% 232.76 251.82

    1110 347 +5.29% 178.60 169.64
    1111 321 +6.66% 184.25 172.74
    1112 359 -13.16% 174.52 200.97
    1113 346 +6.01% 217.25 204.93

    I have run 1,000,000 Monte Carlo trials (because they are Moneyline odds and are not straight 50/50 bets) for each of the 15 variable combinations that have positive ROI. From this I determined that only 1, the "0100" combination, is significant below the 5% level (95% confident that the actual results were not random). However, perhaps I was over zealous in deciding to break the data up into such small groups and this is the point of this post.

    Using the above results, I can tell you that if I combine the combinations and make the following combined group:

    x1x0 AND x1x1 (where x denotes the variable can either be 0 or 1), I have a positive ROI of 1385.45 / 1303.29 = +6.30% ROI on a 1584 event sample size and that this is significant at the 5% level according to a 10,000,000 trial Monte Carlo run. However, it was only because I could look at the original ROI results in the first place that I would have even know to combine them this way (actually, I had an idea but could not prove it).

    And this brings me to the real problem I am having now. How do I, and can I even correctly, combine the combinations to create new combinations without making a Type I error? On the one hand, I am now biased because I have seen the ROI results for each combination. On the other hand, just because I have seen them does not automatically make them not significant. I mean, if I had a sample of 10,000 independent trials that were a 50/50 proposition but had a guaranteed built in ROI of +5% for me and I broke down the sample using 10 different variables (that unknown to me didn't matter anyway), I could get a sample size so small for each combination that a significance test would say the positive ROI was not statistically significant. I have read papers on sports betting in scientific journals that do say things similar to "the highest 3 combinations on the list are jointly significant". Well, how do they justify combining just the top 3 without creating a Type I error? I mean, the only way they knew to combine these 3 combinations in the first place was that they looked at the results.

    After reading about a dozen of these papers, I have come up with 3 different hypothesis as for why they (the authors) can do this and still not create a Type I error:

    1) You can combine combinations linearly starting from the top or bottom of the variable list. For example, if I was looking at NBA totals, I could start from the highest total on record (about 270 or something like that) and even though there are not enough events to declare an ROI as statistically significant for an individual total of 270, I could then add the results for 269, then 268, the 267 and so on until I got to a point where I had a desirable ROI that had a large enough sample size that it could be statistically significant. Even if this first occurred at 230, I could keep going down the list to 229 etc. to see if I got a higher statistically significant ROI. I could also start from the lowest total (I am guessing it is like 150 or something) and work my way up. What I could not do though, is start somewhere other than each end and select a cluster that had a positive ROI and a large enough sample size and declare it as statistically significant. For example, I could not notice that between 195 and 215 was the most profitable and declare that as my unbiased group and test it for significance.

    OR

    2) You can combine ANY variable combination from anywhere in the list with another variable combination so long as it shares a linear relationship with all of the other variable combinations that they are being combined with. Here is a completely made up example for a fictitious sport. Suppose we have the following 4 variables:
    Home and Away
    Favourite or Dog
    Line Moved With or Against Team
    Won or Lost Their Previous Game
    Let's say that each of the 16 possible variable combinations (2x2x2x2=16) resulted in the following 5 combinations having positive ROI but that each did not have a sample size that was big enough to declare the result as significant by itself.
    a) Line Moved Against Home Dog That Won Previous Game
    b) Line Moved With Home Dog That Won Previous Game
    c) Line Moved Against Home Fav That Won Previous Game
    d) Line Moved With Away Dog That Won Previous Game
    e) Line Moved Against Away Dog That Lost Previous Game
    I now notice that "Won Previous Game" connects 4 of the combinations, Home connects 3 of them, Dog connects 4 of them, and Moved against connects 3 of them, etc. I am now free to reduce the variables from 4 down to either 3, 2, or 1 in order to get the highest positive ROI that I can and that is statistically significant. I can make new groups like:
    a) Dogs That Won Previous Game
    b) Home and Won Previous Game
    c) Line Moved Against and Won Previous Game
    etc.
    So long as I am only removing variables to create a new group, I can do this without creating a Type I error. However, I can not say things like:
    a) (Dogs That Won Previous Game) or (Home That Won Previous Game)
    b) (Line Moved Against) and (Dogs That Won Previous Game)
    c) (Line Moved Against and Won Previous Game) but not (Dogs That Won Previous Game)
    Aside: If this #2 method is acceptable, what do I do with combinations that might be already part of another group? I am puzzled by this as well.

    OR

    3) They can not do what they are doing and are creating a Type I error by doing so.

    The thing that worries me about hypothesis #1 or #2 is that if I am going to check all these different combinations of variables that are linearly connected, do I have to adopt some penalty scheme like the Bonferroni Method and penalize myself at a rate of .05/n where n is the number of combinations I have looked at in order to be sure I still have significance at the 5% level? This is the crux of my problem since I do not see the mathematicians even eluding to this in their sports betting papers.
  • Ganchrow
    SBR Hall of Famer
    • 08-28-05
    • 5011

    #2
    I'll try to respond to this when I get back from vacation, but my initial reaction is that you need to be considerably more cautious regarding data mining.

    For example, you said you're looking at 15 different variable combinations. If we assume all these combinations are independent (which of course we know not to be true) then the probability of at least one of these 15 combinations being significant at the α=5% level would be 1 - 95%15 = 53.67%.
    Comment
    • Quebb Diesel
      SBR MVP
      • 01-26-08
      • 3045

      #3
      data snooping is a no no in statistics!
      Comment
      • rake922
        SBR Posting Legend
        • 12-23-07
        • 11692

        #4
        looks like coincidences
        Comment
        • VideoReview
          SBR High Roller
          • 12-14-07
          • 107

          #5
          Originally posted by Ganchrow
          I'll try to respond to this when I get back from vacation, but my initial reaction is that you need to be considerably more cautious regarding data mining.

          For example, you said you're looking at 15 different variable combinations. If we assume all these combinations are independent (which of course we know not to be true) then the probability of at least one of these 15 combinations being significant at the α=5% level would be 1 - 95%15 = 53.67%.
          I am not sure what you mean by independent but there is no overlap with each combination. In other words, the way I have divided up the variables, one event (game) could never belong to 2 or more of the combinations. The entire population is divided up into these 32 different combinations with 15 of them show positive ROI. (Actually, I have excluded -105/-105 ML games to have a clear line between favourite and dog).
          Comment
          • VideoReview
            SBR High Roller
            • 12-14-07
            • 107

            #6
            Originally posted by Ganchrow
            I'll try to respond to this when I get back from vacation, but my initial reaction is that you need to be considerably more cautious regarding data mining.
            Originally posted by Ganchrow
            For example, you said you're looking at 15 different variable combinations. If we assume all these combinations are independent (which of course we know not to be true) then the probability of at least one of these 15 combinations being significant at the α=5% level would be 1 - 95%15 = 53.67%.
            Actually, I have looked at 32 combinations in total so that would be about 80.63%.

            But this is my question exactly because I would have had an idea that I should be looking at the quartiles first. In other words, I could have looked at only 4 combinations and I would have had the following each with about a 1600 sample size.

            +2.90%
            +4.27%
            -9.22%
            -3.63%

            Both the second number is significant and the first one just barely missed. Furthermore, if I had to have chosen just one combination out of every possible combination of 1 to variables, I would have chosen a combination that would have been the first 2 numbers combined (+2.90% and +4.27%) which when combined, are statistically significant with 3200 events.

            Is this how it works with data mining? Am I supposed to pick combinations that I will look at so carefully that they are to be done on an individual basis and that if I casually check another combination, I must pay the confidence level penalty of .05/n where n is the number of combinations considered?

            One strategy I considered was calculating the ROI of each variable I thought might have an ROI that was statistically significant assuming a no vig line. So, let's say I come up with 8 variables that I think might fit the bill. I then calculate that 6 of them have a statistically significant ROI. Here are some hypothetical numbers and their no vig statistically significant ROI. Let's assume I have 10,000 events.
            A=.05
            B=.04
            C=.03
            D=.02
            E=.01
            F=.01
            G=0
            H=0

            So, I have looked at 8 variables and choose to throw out 2 of them (G & H) right away. I am not sure at this point if pay any penalty for this and if this data snooping but if so, how much and why?

            Now, I am going to select my first combination that I hypothesize will be the most profitable. I am going to add the results to a combination called System X. Whatever the results are for this combination, and however poor they may be, I will keep it. I will now look at the actual ROI and not the no vig ROI for the combinations.

            The combination I choose is ABCDEF. I find that this combination as a ROI of +15.5% but only 62 events. I do not bother testing for significance because I am not done adding combinations to System X. I would like to reiterate that other than checking the first 8 variables as isolate variables and seeing what there results are, no combination is being checked before it is added to System X.

            The next combination I choose is ABCDE which excludes the combination of ABCDEF from the sample. I find the ROI is +9.7% and has 112 events. Again, I add this to System X because I decided that any combination I check must be added if I am going to look at it.

            Now, with each step, I run a regression on the variables I have chosen in the combination and their ROI's so I can see how the next combination I might choose might fair. I might even look at the number of events in that combination but NEVER look at the results. Between the number of events and making my best guess as to what the ROI might be, I can continue to take chances adding new combinations to System X until I feel that any more selections might reduce the overall statistically significance of the current ROI that System X has. Eventually I have 3300 events with an ROI of +5.6% that is statistically significant and I decide to stop adding to System X. I now start System Y and continue the selection process until I feel I should stop that. Maybe I end up with 2400 events and an ROI of 2.1% that is barely statistically significant. I then do System Z which as I am adding combinations, never has a significant ROI.

            I know I have said it twice already but using this strategy, other than the initial check of 8 variables, I have never looked at the results of any particular combination before adding it to System X, Y, or Z.

            Is this a valid process that avoids the pitfalls of data snooping?
            Comment
            • VideoReview
              SBR High Roller
              • 12-14-07
              • 107

              #7
              Originally posted by rake922
              looks like coincidences
              Thanks for the input Rake.

              I thought I would check this out after I read your post. I have been using the exact same method since February 14th. Since then, I have actually placed 51 Money Line bets at average odds of +100 and have won 58.82% of those bets for an average ROI of 16.0332% when betting to win the same 1 unit. Because I have recently learned how to calculate the level of significance from Ganchrow when different odds are used, I ran a 3,000,000 trial Monte Carlo simulation on the following 51 bets:

              -132 -106 178 -130 112
              117 132 -118 131 -138
              -122 -108 -103 137 -113
              197 164 105 -132 126
              -130 -115 -125 247 -122
              -110 -134 121 135 192
              105 -114 101 -137 -137
              -107 -148 121 132
              -119 121 -119 -131
              -133 -145 -101 133
              -136 -140 120 -119

              The above bets produced the ROI results I had mentioned. The 3,000,000 trial results are that QUAL or p is .1218. Therefore, I am 87.82% sure that the chances that positive results that I am getting are not a coincidence. Although this does not meet my normal .05 level that I consider as a cut off, I am still hopeful I am on the right track. Finally, my ROI would have been a tad better (about 16.2% ROI as a final number) if I was able to catch the final closing line rather than the line 1-3 minutes before the close. I base the projections on the closing numbers from previous results.

              UPDATE
              I don't intend to continue to update my results but as this post is still in play and as I continue to approach the magic 95% confidence level I am seeking I thought I would add that I caught both Philadelphia +162 and Toronto +186 last night. Incidentally, although the totals numbers are not yet as refined as my Moneyline numbers and I am not including these in my overall win % or amounts, I also caught the under 6 at -101 on the Toronto game. These were my only 3 NHL plays last night.

              It is not that I do not think that data snooping is unimportant or that there is a chance my results are coincidences. It is more that I believe I am close (if not there) to being able to uncover positive EV plays and am only trying to make sure that I develop and test these models from scratch the correct way. In other words, I think I may continue to get positive long term results with what I am doing but for the wrong reasons and am certain that if I am going to continue to get positive results, I am no where near full Kelly on this. The proof of this seems to be the continuing positive results I am getting which are now:

              NHL Moneyline Plays: 53
              Average Odds: +102 (based on an average of the log odds)
              Average Win %: 60.38%
              QUAL or P or Confidence Level: .0766

              The confidence level was based on a 3,000,000 trial Monte Carlo simulation and shows that the likelihood that my results are a mere coincidence is 7.66% and that it is 92.33% likely that it is not. BTW, the p value has been on almost a straight line descent from the time I started these Moneyline plays. When I get below 5%, I would no longer (as I am now) willing to accept the null hypothesis that my results are by chance.

              Right now I am only playing with a very small bankroll and will continue to do so until I can win for the "right reasons". In that regard, I am on your side with still maintaining a certain degree of skepticism.
              Last edited by VideoReview; 02-26-08, 08:48 AM. Reason: Update On The Numbers
              Comment
              • RickySteve
                Restricted User
                • 01-31-06
                • 3415

                #8
                "A little learning is a dangerous thing; drink deep, or taste not the Pierian spring: there shallow draughts intoxicate the brain, and drinking largely sobers us again." -Alex Pope
                Comment
                • Justin7
                  SBR Hall of Famer
                  • 07-31-06
                  • 8577

                  #9
                  I'd be very careful with this line of analysis. It's good to think and keep an open mind, but there are two serious potential problems with this approach.

                  First, call it "data mining bias". Consider a sequence of 1000 coin flips. If you conduct 100 different tests on a purely random sequence, you'll find 5 that "look" 95% confident that it is good. You have to apply logic to explain why your sequence is special.

                  Second, you have a problem with the market correcting itself. Almost anything you can describe, the market knows. The sports betting market has been getting tighter and tighter in the last 5 years. In the 1990s, you could blindly net NFL home dogs of 7.5+ and win. There were lots of "tricks" like this, but as more people figured it out, and more people bet it, the value disappeared.

                  A better approach to trend-based betting is to use power models, and figure out how much a trend should adjust power ratings. For example, a team that gets blown out at home (define blowout = lose by 20+ points) might play 2.5 points above its power rating on average in the next game. In the past, that might have been a 55% hit rate. You'll do better adjusting for that 2.5 points, and considering other factors as well... What if after the adjustment, the line is right?
                  Comment
                  • curious
                    Restricted User
                    • 07-20-07
                    • 9093

                    #10
                    The problem with trend based betting, as I see it, is this. How sure can you be that the variables you are tracking for the trend are the determining factors in the win-loss ratio and that the true determining factors were actually something else that was not being tracked in this trend? I will use an example. Say you are following the trend "win loss record on Tuesday". I know this is a goofy one but I have seen people in here who follow it. Was it really the fact that the games were being played on Tuesday that was the determining factor? Or, could it have been the fact that Tuesday just happened to coincide with the last game of a road trip or the last game of a series or the start of a road trip or the start of a series. Or, could it be that the pitching rotation being used makes it so that one of the team's pitching aces usually starts on Tuesday?

                    Having said this I do think that there are some situational trends like a starting pitcher's effectiveness at home vs on the road, for example, which absolutely have merit. However, the lines makers know about these situational trends also and have adjusted the line appropriately.

                    PS
                    I want to thank everyone who reached out to me last night when I made the post about being ill. I feel better today and am going to go see an internal medicine specialist this afternoon. THANK YOU!!
                    Comment
                    • VideoReview
                      SBR High Roller
                      • 12-14-07
                      • 107

                      #11
                      Originally posted by RickySteve
                      "A little learning is a dangerous thing; drink deep, or taste not the Pierian spring: there shallow draughts intoxicate the brain, and drinking largely sobers us again." -Alex Pope
                      I'm working on it RickeySteve, I'm working on it. If I thought I knew as much as you infer, I would be betting nickels and dimes (alot for me but still manageable) chasing non-existent positive EV. For the last year (which is when I started looking at sports) in total I have bet absolute peanuts and spent most of my time analyzing. Until I have found and verified a positive EV process, you won't have to worry about winning my money.
                      Last edited by VideoReview; 03-05-08, 04:54 PM. Reason: grammar
                      Comment
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