Hey, all you people smarter than me in stats, I need your help. I've lurked in the think tank a bit, but just now getting to where I don't feel stupid asking questions.
Anyway, for the sake of curiosity, I plotted team offensive efficiency (O. Eff) and defensive efficiency (D. Eff) against winning percentages in the NBA. Here's what I got.
Offensive Efficiency:
Winning percentage can roughly be modeled as 3.64*(O. Eff)-3.28
R^2 = .62
Defensive Efficiency:
Winning percentage can roughly be modeled as -3.56*(D. Eff)+4.2
R^2 = .41
(Note that my efficiency ratings are for possessions, rather than 100 possessions)
My question is this:
I know that correlation doesn't demonstrate cause, but does the much higher correlation value (R^2) as well as higher coefficient (3.64 vs 3.56) of O. Eff mean that teams with a good O. Eff are more likely to win than teams with a good D. Eff, or is it just kind of a fluke?