Math Question

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  • Son of Sam
    SBR Rookie
    • 02-05-10
    • 45

    #1
    Math Question
    I apologize in advance as I am sure most in here will find this question remedial in nature.

    What is the formula used to determine multiple teams vs the field. I will use the NBA odds to win as an example. Right now Pinny has Clev +181 and LAL +259 individually, but if you wager on them together in the Big2 vs Field you lay -183. At first glance I thought it was taking the NO price of both and parlaying that together but I didn't come up with the right number.

    Any help would be greatly appreciated.
  • andywend
    SBR MVP
    • 05-20-07
    • 4805

    #2
    SonofSam,

    Just convert the moneylines into percentage chance.

    In your example above, Cleveland (+181) equals 35.5% chance. LA Lakers (+259) equals approximately 28% chance.

    When you add them together you come up with 63.5% chance which equals approximately -173.

    Based on the odds given, you would be slightly better off betting on both teams to win individually as opposed to betting on them as the Big2 @ -183.
    Comment
    • Son of Sam
      SBR Rookie
      • 02-05-10
      • 45

      #3
      Thank you very much Andy.
      Comment
      • andywend
        SBR MVP
        • 05-20-07
        • 4805

        #4
        Good luck with your wager and it seems to make sense.

        If either Cleveland or the Lakers make it to the finals, they should be at least -200 over any team they face (except each other and you win your bet in that scenario).

        Since they are both favored to win their respective conferences, I would lock it down before the price changes.
        Comment
        • Justin7
          SBR Hall of Famer
          • 07-31-06
          • 8577

          #5
          You also need to consider the bookmaker's hold.

          If you want to use the prices to estimate the odds of a team winning, use Pinnacle's moneyline calculator. Put in all the entries to figure out the house hold. If the house hold is 10%, you want to decrease the cumalitive odds of all teams winning by 10%.

          for example, if a future offered
          LA Lakers -110
          Cleveland -110

          -110 / -210 suggests each team will win 52.4%.

          If you use Pinny's calculator, it will show the house edge at about 5% (of volume risked). To convert each future into an accurate win percentage, you need to divide that 5% hold equally among the teams - in this case, dropping each team's win by 2.5% (or 2.4%).
          Comment
          • MonkeyF0cker
            SBR Posting Legend
            • 06-12-07
            • 12144

            #6
            Originally posted by Justin7
            You also need to consider the bookmaker's hold.

            If you want to use the prices to estimate the odds of a team winning, use Pinnacle's moneyline calculator. Put in all the entries to figure out the house hold. If the house hold is 10%, you want to decrease the cumalitive odds of all teams winning by 10%.

            for example, if a future offered
            LA Lakers -110
            Cleveland -110

            -110 / -210 suggests each team will win 52.4%.

            If you use Pinny's calculator, it will show the house edge at about 5% (of volume risked). To convert each future into an accurate win percentage, you need to divide that 5% hold equally among the teams - in this case, dropping each team's win by 2.5% (or 2.4%).
            That's if you're willing to assume that NBA futures are efficient. Meh. No thanks.
            Comment
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