1. #1
    1984mountaineer
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    Can someone translate this to me?

    nternet / -1 Ticket #: 810167
    May 26 01:05 PM
    May 26 12:35 PM
    May 26 01:05 PM

    MLB
    MLB
    MLB
    PARLAY (3 TEAMS)
    [902] PHI -160
    ( ACTION )
    [909] TOTAL o8˝-105 (KAN vrs BAL)
    ( J FRANCIS -L / J GUTHRIE -R )
    [911] TOTAL o8˝EV (BOS vrs DET)
    ( A ACEVES -R / M SCHERZER -R )

    14.00 / 74.83

    30.42
    WIN
    WIN
    WIN
    N/A SHORT
    05/26/2011 08:32

  2. #2
    1984mountaineer
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    I bet 14 to win 74.83..... had all three parts of the parlay correct, but was only awarded 14/30.42

  3. #3
    John Dough
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    The BOS/DET game only went 8 innings, totals are no action, so you get credit for a two-team parlay win.
    Points Awarded:

    Rod_M gave John Dough 6 SBR Point(s) for this post.


  4. #4
    Rod_M
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    Quote Originally Posted by John Dough View Post
    The BOS/DET game only went 8 innings, totals are no action, so you get credit for a two-team parlay win.
    What he said exactly

  5. #5
    1984mountaineer
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    Quote Originally Posted by John Dough View Post
    The BOS/DET game only went 8 innings, totals are no action, so you get credit for a two-team parlay win.


    I'm an idiot. I still got the over even though it was shortened! Damn.....Just for forum points, I didn't see that the game got shortened. Confused myself a bit. Thanks, boss.

    EDIT: Also it saying I "WIN" for all three games led to part of the confusion.

  6. #6
    chachi
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    why are totals no action in situations like this if the line was effectively 'already unconditionally determined' ?

  7. #7
    mtneer1212
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    Quote Originally Posted by chachi View Post
    why are totals no action in situations like this if the line was effectively 'already unconditionally determined' ?
    Because if you allowed action, unders would have an advantage, and if you allowed action and it was already an over, then under players are disadvataged.
    175 pts

    3-QUESTION
    SBR TRIVIA WINNER 09/12/2022


  8. #8
    chachi
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    Guess am used to BetFair rules / Eurobooks ... they would void if shortened only IF overs was not already a determined result, after all, if the score is 12-0 in the 2nd inning and rain kicks in after the 5th, unders backers can hardly claim to be disadvantaged, it's really the overs backers who are getting shafted

  9. #9
    LegitBet
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    See that's the way it should be, where if an over comes in quickly, it's a winner regardless.
    This is just fair, and could be taken into account whenpricing the bet.
    Similar to overtime counting in halftime bets.

  10. #10
    chachi
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    The thing I like about Betfair's methods is that they generally settle over/under markets that I bet/trade as they hit

    Sometimes laying u1.5 or backing the over and a few early ones fly in, I'm already paid out by the 15th minute or so

  11. #11
    RickySteve
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    It's a stupid rule.

  12. #12
    Dark Horse
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    Yes it is.

    When the over has won after 2 innings, the under has lost. You don't need the whole 9 innings to figure that out. Not rocket science. Enter: THEORY.... Reasoning behind this strange rule is that unders can't win unless the whole game is played. In other words, if play is suspended in the 7th inning with the run total still one run under the posted total, the over doesn't get paid, but neither does the under. 'Therefore', even if the game has already gone over, with both bets (over/under) decided, to grade the bet as a win for the over would give over bettors a tiny mathematical edge. In theory, the over/under would no longer be a perfect 50/50 proposition. An example of taking math too far; into a theoretical realm outside of everyday reality.

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