To figure out the odds, you can use this forumla (first one on this page):
http://itl.nist.gov/div898/handbook/...n3/eda366i.htm
The formula for the binomial probability mass function is
where
n = number of trials (number of hands played in this case)
p = probability of hitting a RF (.000025 is the estimate Shilheim's "expert" used, although it should be a touch lower)
x = exact number of successes
Solve for X = 0. This gives you the chance that no straight flushes are hit in n number of hands played.
Solve for X = 1. This gives you the chance that exactly 1 straight flushes are hit in n number of hands played
Solve for X = 2. This gives you the chance that exactly 2 straight flushes are hit in n number of hands played
Now you subtract these 3 answers from 1. This will give you the probabability that you hit 3 or more RFs in n number of hands, which is what we really want to know. If we wanted to know the probability of hitting exactly 3 (we don't, it's not relevant) than we would just solve for x = 3.
This is how I would solve the problem, although it is a lot easier to plug the numbers into this calculator and let a machine do it for you:
http://stattrek.com/Tables/Binomial.aspx
The only part remotely "difficult" would be if you don't know how to divide factorials.
Dullcat, let me know if you need help and I can hold your hand and walk you through it.
Michael Shackleford (WizardofOdds.com) does a similar example here:
http://wizardofodds.com/askthewizard...obability.html
It's the question where the guy writing in says that his friend hit 2 RFs in one days and asks how likely that is. There's a typo where he calculates the probability of hitting 1 RF, but the answer is correct. You can verify, using the calculator that I linked, that all of the answers are the same as he shows for his chosen values.