1. 01-23-11 06:15 PM #1
    hockey07
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    Are these correlated parlays

    Hey guys, i read a bunch on correlated parlays on SBR and i see that most of the talk is about the fav and the over or the dog and the under. If a player bets a team first half and parlays it with the same team for the complete game I would have to say that is a correlate parlay correct. Sorry for the stupid question.
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  2. 01-23-11 06:19 PM #2
    FourLengthsClear
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    Yes.
    Team total 1st half and Team total for the complete game have a high degree of correlation (degree to which one affects the other).
    Books will not accept such wagers.
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  3. 01-23-11 06:20 PM #3
    hockey07
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    im not talking about team totals im talking about spread and moneyline bets. For instance if a player wanted to bet the jets moneyline 1st half/ and jets full game moneyline. Would a book accept this bet?
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  4. 01-23-11 06:21 PM #4
    Gee
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    I can't imagine a parlay being any more correlated.

    Its like trying to parlay the ML and the spread for a favourite on any given game.
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  5. 01-23-11 06:23 PM #5
    hockey07
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    ok thanks guys!
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  6. 01-23-11 06:24 PM #6
    FourLengthsClear
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    Quote Originally Posted by hockey07 View Post
    im not talking about team totals im talking about spread and moneyline bets. For instance if a player wanted to bet the jets moneyline 1st half/ and jets full game moneyline. Would a book accept this bet?
    No. Again the degree of correlation is too high.

    There are a few markets available to parlay that offer a (small) mathematical advantage to the player. I could tell you what they are but then I would have to kill you.
    Last edited by FourLengthsClear; 01-23-11 at 06:27 PM.
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  7. 01-23-11 07:05 PM #7
    hockey07
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    ok perfect. Now what about a team in football, like the packers were today, -3.5. Since its such a small spread would it be considered correlated to the over still? So you can't ever bet the fav ATS and the over in football in a parlay?
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