ok so I flip a coin one time at -105
50-50 chance to win
now if I flip a coin 10000 times at -105
I have a very low chance to actually end up winning
so my argument is this
a bettor who does not actually have an edge needs to bet as few bets as possible to actually increase their chance of winning, less bets keeps variance very in play. Now a bettor with an actual edge needs as many bets as possible, the more the merrier to make sure they are overcoming variance.
right or wrong? I know I am not stating this very clearly but the thought was in my head and makes sense, is this true? I am not looking at it from a book standpoint, I am talking about 1 coin flip for 1 guy not the books cumulative coin flips of 1 million 1 flip guys.