[Martinr]

This is a question for anyone who is familiar with the way sports books frame their markets.
Say a book's over-round (vig, juice) is 5%
Do all books apply this evenly to all options in a market?
For instance;

True chances for Team A = 0.5
"""""""""""""""""" Team B = 0.5

Odds would normally be 1.904 each of 2. Or 52.5% each (apologies for the decimal odds).

So what if the book applies 2% juice to one side, and 8% to the other?

Odds become 1.96 Team A (51%)
""""""""""""""" 1.85 Team B (54%)

The perception to the punter is that Team B is the favourite, but in reality both teams are equal according to the handicapper.

The reason I ask this is for when the market is more favoured to one side.
Say the odds on a Tennis Match are 1.10/6.50.
This is a 6% juice market, but can I be confident that the 6% is applied to each side?

Any oddsmakers out there?

[Cookie Monster]

You are in the right track. Bookmakers do not juice evenly moneylines, they tend to charge more juice on the dog. There is a good thread on the subject:
http://www.sportsbookreview.com/forum/handicappe...moneyline.html

[Martinr]

Thanks, I'll check that out.
I was actually thinking that they might tax the likely media favourite heavier, to give the impression that the money's down. A good example looks like the -3 line on the Spurs today.
The good road record of S.A, the change of coach for the Pistons. To me it screams like a sucker bet and B365 have -3 Spurs @1.86/+3 Pistons @ 1.95.
OK, maybe that's not such a good example. Obviously B365 don't set the lines (just thinking out loud here).
Anyway, thanks again.