1. #1
    Carloschihuahua
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    Mathematical riddle in dealing Blackjack.

    I was opposed by a dealer colleague tonight with the following question, and I hope that we can bring clarity to this since I just can't figure it out.

    A blackjack dealer is dealing a seven boxed (standard vegas) table, he deals one face-up card for each player and one face-down card to himself. He repeats the action and now have two face-down cards in front of him.
    Now the dealer flips the wrong card (The one that is supposed to stay face-down) over the other. He might have altered the house edge. Since he didn't know the values of any of his cards, how can he have changed the house edge?

  2. #2
    Zubi
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    I don't see how he did, cards are going to go like they are going to go, don't really see a difference in which card he flips other than it was a mistake.

  3. #3
    Kaabee
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    this is no riddle. house edge doesn't change.

  4. #4
    mrlegend28
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    the only way it changes the edge is what card it is i guess. if he flips a Ace instead of say the 3 that was the other card, could stress you out a little more.. i guess. thats my take lol

  5. #5
    Carloschihuahua
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    Quote Originally Posted by mrlegend28 View Post
    the only way it changes the edge is what card it is i guess. if he flips a Ace instead of say the 3 that was the other card, could stress you out a little more.. i guess. thats my take lol
    I got the answer today, and it turns out that you're on the right way.
    Suppose that the cards are a six and ten, the dealer has sixteen irregardless of what cards will be turned.

    But if the six is supposed to be turned, and the ten is turned instead the house edge has increased for the house. The dealer has revelead a hand with a high chance NOT to bust, and the players will base their decisions upon this. They will (If they know anything about blackjack) try to get seventeen before they stop, which means a lot of the hands will risk to go bust to an actual dealers hand of sixteen.

    And of course, if the other case would appear, the house edge will turn in the favor of the players.

  6. #6
    RichardGeorge
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    Never even thought about that... I guess it makes sense.... If the 10 is showing they have to draw to at least a 17... whereas 6 they over 11.... better chance of people busting vs. a 10..

  7. #7
    Jimmy Proffett
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    In a single sample size described above, the dealer would have the advantage. Let's say the dealer alternates between flipping the right card and wrong card for 100 hands. I don't think there'd be any advantage for either the dealer or the players.

  8. #8
    chipper
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    Interesting... I never thought about it but I guess it would affect the house percentage given the two cards were six and a paint. What if they were a six and a five though, would that change the house percentage since the players would assume the dealer was in a busting situation yet likely would not bust?

  9. #9
    Kaabee
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    didn't know you meant one hand only. one hand yes, long run no.

  10. #10
    Carloschihuahua
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    Quote Originally Posted by Jimmy Proffett View Post
    In a single sample size described above, the dealer would have the advantage. Let's say the dealer alternates between flipping the right card and wrong card for 100 hands. I don't think there'd be any advantage for either the dealer or the players.
    Of course there would be no difference if which card was turned was completely random, and as you say, as long as it is exposed to the law of big numbers, there is no difference.

    But maybe you could take this one step further, if a dealer actually somehow would KNOW what his two cards are, he could turn the one that is either favorable to the house or the player, depending on who's side he's on.

  11. #11
    playr101
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    I thought this was a trick question.

    "he deals one face-up card for each player and one face-down card to himself. He repeats the action and now have two face-down cards in front of him."

    So he deals all cards face-up and his face down.. then he repeats..... leaving all other cards face up.. and his both face down.. There is the house edge..



    -playr101

  12. #12
    Carloschihuahua
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    Quote Originally Posted by playr101 View Post
    I thought this was a trick question.

    "he deals one face-up card for each player and one face-down card to himself. He repeats the action and now have two face-down cards in front of him."

    So he deals all cards face-up and his face down.. then he repeats..... leaving all other cards face up.. and his both face down.. There is the house edge..



    -playr101
    Lol.

    No, the reason I wrote it like that is that it is standard procedure to deal both cards facedown before you show any of their faces. In shoe-dealt blackjack in Vegas at least. And I thought that most misunderstandings would be avoided by doing this, but apperently not.

  13. #13
    WhiteEagle
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    how it works, how it works...interested

  14. #14
    ddesmara
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    very informative

  15. #15
    kiln
    Ezekiel 25:17
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    Quote Originally Posted by Carloschihuahua View Post
    ...irregardless...
    This isn't a word. I'm letting you know so you don't repeat the mistake, not to be didactic.

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