[HarmersHaven]

Hi Guys,

I'm posting from Australia and would like to know a little more about the SHOW bet type. Here in AUS, we call this bet type PLACE (pays 1-2-3).

I'm fully aware of how tote/pari-mutual betting works, what I'm a little unsure of is how a) the SHOW dividend is calculated and b) how the interim dividends differ.

I'm getting my information from LINK2BET - which is giving me pool sizes, amount staked per runner and approx. dividend (x2).

It's the two dividends (per runner) I am unsure of - it looks as though a runners' SHOW payout may differ depending on whether it runs 1-2-3.

?

Am I reading this correctly? If anybody could explain the two lines of approx. payouts per runner for the SHOW - that would be greatly appreciated.

Cheers.

[singgooner]

Hi,

I think what you are asking about is the PMU dividend.

I know in Australia like England everything is caluclated to a 1 unit stake.

But in USA, it is based on a US$2 stake - so if your horse wins and you get US$4 - that means it was an EVEN MONEY fav - US$4/US$4 = 1.0 odds.

So, if you see a dividend on the USA Tote - divide by 2 and you get the 1 unit declared dividend.

Hope that helps

[HarmersHaven]

Thanks. I'm aware of different jurisdictions displaying approximates for different stake amounts ($1, $2, $5, $10 etc.).

That's not quite my problem here. And what doesn't help my cause is the data (pools will pay etc.) that I alluded to fro LINK2BET gets wiped daily, to my eye they don't store this historically.

What they do show, with regards to the SHOW pool (no pun intended!!) is TWO approx. payouts per runner in the SHOW pool, I'll try and replicate it below with 'mythical' figures. I'm uncertain of the difference between the two payouts within the same pool - and obviously how its' calculated.

Mythical Greyhounds Race. SHOW approximates. Displayed for $2 stake.


DOG 1 2
1 2.20 2.80
2 3.00 4.80
3 2.40 3.20
4 10.00 14.40
5 4.80 6.40
6 8.00 10.00
7 3.20 5.20
8 16.40 18.00


Please don't worry about market %age in this example, this is just how the data is displayed.

[trytrytry]

no show payouts would be same if the same three horses finished in any order.

but 3rd place is show

2nd place is what we call place

and all prices even show have a minimum $2.10 for $2.00 (some trakcs $2.20)....in australia you can really get screwed on PLACE because
if after track takout if its lower then $2.10 (or manye its $2.08 I cant recall) you get back only your risk no PROFIT!!.. so you risk your bet not he track but for NO GAIN!! ..... thats the worst thing in wagering in the entire world if you ask me what they do to you in Australia Place payouts...

[HarmersHaven]

Thanks (I think!) but I'm still none the wiser.

I'm aware SHOW betting is 1-2-3 (Australia's equivalent of PLACE), but:

For every SHOW pool I look at, there are two approximate prices/will pays for every runner.

I'll use an actual example (Birmingham Dogs R6, 06-03-2014)

SHOW Pool: $144

Amount staked on each dog: 7, 20, 25, 3, 13, 57, 8, 11 (= $144)

$1 Probable Payouts
1 - 1.90, 1.10, 1.10, 3.50, 1.30, 1.10, 1.70, 1.40
2 - 5.20, 2.30, 1.90, 11.0, 3.10, 1.20, 4.70, 3.60

That the actual result was 6-5-8 and the SHOW divs were 1.10 1.60 1.80 has got me even more baffled.

[str]

In the USA there is no way to accurately predict the show payouts without knowing who the other two horses are that finished in the money.

The pool is totaled, and the takeout is taken. It is then divided based on how much is bet on the horses that qualify for payouts.

So if a horse that was 6-1 to win and probably would pay about 4.00 to show based on a 2.00 dollar bet runs 1-2-3, you have to see who else is getting paid and how many tickets are alive. No way of knowing that for sure until the race has been run. If the 1-2 favorite is heavily bet in the show pool and runs 1-2-3, your approximate 4.00 payout will probably become 2.40 +/- because of so much show money on the big favorite. If however two longer shots with very little bet to show on them run in the money and that 1-2 shot that was heavily bet to show runs out, your 4.00 approx. payout could very well become 8.00+/-.

When you see 1-9 shots that "bridge jumpers" crush in the show pool with 100,000 more on it than the other horses , runs out of the money it is not uncommon to see the three horses that did run 1-2-3 pay more to show than the winner paid to win. I have seen plenty of 50.00 -100.00 show payouts when this occurs. It does not happen often but when it does, it is usually a mighty payout.

Hope that helps.

[HarmersHaven]

I've spoken to a mate (another Aussie) who seems to think the set of approximates I've posted above (as an example) are merely the range of the possible dividend - i.e. the min/max payout. He thinks this is what happens with Japanese racing as well.

Does this make any sense / could this ring true?

[Brooklyn Dick]

To determine the show price you take the show pool less the takeout. Then deduct from that number the amounts bet to show on the first 3 finishers. The number you have left is then divided by 3. You would take the number that is divided by 3 and divide the amount to show on your horse. For example say you have 6300 as your number and there is 8500 bet on your horse, you divide 6300/8500 and get .741. Times that by 2 and add 2 to it. Answer is 3.48. Less breakage the price is 3.40 to show.